HESI RN
HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam
1. When reviewing laboratory results for a client receiving tacrolimus (Prograf), which laboratory result would indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing an adverse effect of the medication?
- A. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL
- B. Potassium level of 3.8 mEq/L
- C. Platelet count of 300,000 cells/mm³
- D. White blood cell count of 6000 cells/mm³
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An elevated blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL indicates an adverse effect of tacrolimus. This finding suggests hyperglycemia, which is a known adverse effect of the medication. Other potential adverse effects of tacrolimus include neurotoxicity and hypertension. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to detect and manage this adverse effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with adverse effects of tacrolimus. Potassium, platelet count, and white blood cell count are important parameters to monitor for other reasons but not specifically for detecting adverse effects of tacrolimus.
2. Tamoxifen is prescribed for the client with metastatic breast carcinoma. The nurse understands that the primary action of this medication is to:
- A. Increase DNA and RNA synthesis.
- B. Promote the biosynthesis of nucleic acids.
- C. Increase estrogen concentration and estrogen response.
- D. Compete with estradiol for binding to estrogen in tissues containing high concentrations of receptors.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The primary action of tamoxifen, an antineoplastic medication used in metastatic breast carcinoma, is to compete with estradiol for binding to estrogen receptors in tissues with high receptor concentrations. By doing so, tamoxifen reduces DNA synthesis and estrogen response, leading to its therapeutic effect in inhibiting the growth of estrogen-sensitive breast cancer cells.
3. An older client recently has been taking cimetidine (Tagamet). The nurse monitors the client for which most frequent central nervous system side effect of this medication?
- A. Tremors
- B. Dizziness
- C. Confusion
- D. Hallucinations
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Older clients are particularly vulnerable to central nervous system side effects of cimetidine. The most frequent side effect is confusion. It is crucial for nurses to be vigilant in monitoring for confusion as it can impact the client's safety and well-being. While tremors, dizziness, and hallucinations are possible side effects, confusion is the most common in older clients taking cimetidine.
4. A client has begun therapy with theophylline (Theo-24). The nurse tells the client to limit the intake of which of the following while taking this medication?
- A. Oranges and pineapple
- B. Coffee, cola, and chocolate
- C. Oysters, lobster, and shrimp
- D. Cottage cheese, cream cheese, and dairy creamers
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Theophylline is a xanthine bronchodilator. Xanthines are found in coffee, cola, and chocolate. These foods should be limited while taking theophylline to prevent potential drug interactions or adverse effects.
5. A client with chronic renal failure is receiving ferrous sulfate (Feosol). The nurse monitors the client for which common side effect associated with this medication?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Weakness
- C. Headache
- D. Constipation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Constipation is a common side effect of iron supplements such as ferrous sulfate. Iron can cause constipation by slowing down the movement of the digestive system and hardening the stool. Patients should be advised to increase their fluid intake, dietary fiber, and physical activity to help alleviate this side effect. Diarrhea (Choice A) is not a common side effect associated with ferrous sulfate. Weakness (Choice B) and headache (Choice C) are not typically linked to this medication.
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