Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is collecting data from a client who has hypocalcemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Decreased deep-tendon reflexes
• B. Skeletal muscle weakness
• C. Hypoactive bowel sounds
• D. Tingling of the lips

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, tingling of the lips (perioral tingling). This is a common symptom of hypocalcemia due to increased neuromuscular excitability. Choice A, decreased deep-tendon reflexes, is more indicative of hypercalcemia. Choice B, skeletal muscle weakness, is associated with hypokalemia. Choice C, hypoactive bowel sounds, is not a typical finding in hypocalcemia.

2. A parent asks the school nurse how to eliminate lice from their child. What is the most appropriate response by the nurse?

• A. Cut the child's hair short to remove the nits
• B. Apply warm soaks to the head twice daily
• C. Wash the child's linen and clothing in a bleach solution
• D. Application of pediculicides

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Pediculicides are the recommended treatment for lice and should be used to eliminate the infestation.

3. A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of these interventions should the nurse perform to reduce the risk of infection?

• A. Changing the TPN tubing and solution every 24 hours
• B. Monitoring the TPN infusion rate closely
• C. Keeping the head of the bed elevated
• D. Ensuring the solution is at room temperature before infusing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to change the TPN tubing and solution every 24 hours to reduce the risk of infection. This practice helps prevent microbial growth and contamination in the TPN solution. Monitoring the infusion rate closely (choice B) is important for preventing metabolic complications but does not directly reduce the risk of infection. Keeping the head of the bed elevated (choice C) is beneficial for preventing aspiration in feeding tube placement but is unrelated to reducing infection risk in TPN. Ensuring the solution is at room temperature before infusing (choice D) is essential for patient comfort and preventing metabolic complications but does not specifically address infection risk reduction.

4. A nurse is providing care to a primigravida whose membranes spontaneously ruptured (ROM) 4 hours ago. Labor is to be induced. At the time of the ROM the vital signs were T-99.8 degrees F, P-84, R-20, BP-130/78, and fetal heart tones (FHT) 148 beats/min. Which assessment findings taken now may be an early indication that the client is developing a complication of labor?

• A. FHT 168 beats/min
• B. Temperature 100 degrees Fahrenheit
• C. Cervical dilation of 4 cm
• D. BP 138/88

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Fetal heart rate elevation can indicate distress, making it an early sign of labor complications. Choices B, C, and D are not the best answers in this scenario. Choice B, an elevated temperature, could indicate infection but is not a direct sign of labor complications. Choice C, cervical dilation of 4 cm, is a normal part of labor progression for a primigravida. Choice D, a blood pressure of 138/88, falls within normal limits and is not an early indication of labor complications.

5. During an assessment on a client in congestive heart failure, what is most likely to be revealed upon auscultation of the heart?

• A. S3 ventricular gallop
• B. Apical click
• C. Systolic murmur
• D. Split S2

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: S3 ventricular gallop. An S3 sound is a common finding in congestive heart failure due to fluid overload in the heart. It is associated with decreased ventricular compliance. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. An apical click is not typically associated with congestive heart failure. A systolic murmur may be heard in conditions like mitral regurgitation but is not specific to congestive heart failure. A split S2 is associated with conditions like pulmonary hypertension, not congestive heart failure.

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