Nursing Elites

1. A client is scheduled for a colonoscopy. Which of these instructions should the nurse provide?

• A. You should avoid eating or drinking anything after midnight the day before the test.
• B. You may have a light breakfast the morning of the test.
• C. You will need to drink a bowel preparation solution the day before the test.
• D. You will need to avoid taking any medications the day before the test.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'You will need to drink a bowel preparation solution the day before the test.' Before a colonoscopy, it is essential to cleanse the colon thoroughly by drinking a bowel preparation solution. This helps to ensure that the colon is clear for the procedure, allowing for better visualization and examination of the colon. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because avoiding eating or drinking after midnight, having a light breakfast, and avoiding medications are not specific instructions related to the colonoscopy preparation process.

2. After a myocardial infarction, a client is placed on a sodium-restricted diet. When the nurse is teaching the client about the diet, which meal plan would be the most appropriate?

• A. 3 oz. broiled fish, 1 baked potato, 1/2 cup canned beets, 1 orange, and milk
• B. 3 oz. canned salmon, fresh broccoli, 1 biscuit, tea, and 1 apple
• C. A bologna sandwich, fresh eggplant, 2 oz fresh fruit, tea, and apple juice
• D. 3 oz. turkey, 1 fresh sweet potato, 1/2 cup fresh green beans, milk, and 1 orange

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A meal of turkey, sweet potato, green beans, milk, and an orange is low in sodium and suitable for a post-MI diet. Choice A includes a baked potato and canned beets, which are higher in sodium. Choice B includes canned salmon, which can be high in sodium. Choice C includes a bologna sandwich, which is also high in sodium compared to the other options.

3. Which of these nursing assessments would be the highest priority for a client at risk for aspiration pneumonia?

• A. Assessing the client's level of consciousness
• B. Monitoring the client's oxygen saturation
• C. Checking the client's gag reflex before eating or drinking
• D. Monitoring the client's intake and output

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Checking the client's gag reflex before eating or drinking is the highest priority for a client at risk for aspiration pneumonia. Aspiration pneumonia can occur when food, liquids, or saliva are inhaled into the lungs, leading to inflammation or infection. Checking the gag reflex helps prevent the aspiration of substances into the lungs. Assessing the client's level of consciousness (Choice A) is important but not as immediately critical as checking the gag reflex. Monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice B) is essential for respiratory assessment but does not directly prevent aspiration. Monitoring intake and output (Choice D) is important for overall client management but does not specifically address the risk of aspiration pneumonia.

4. A client has been diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. Which of these nursing diagnoses should receive the highest priority?

• A. Risk for injury related to exophthalmos
• B. Impaired social interaction related to emotional lability
• C. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements related to hypermetabolism
• D. Activity intolerance related to fatigue

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Activity intolerance related to fatigue.' This nursing diagnosis should receive the highest priority for a client with hyperthyroidism. Hyperthyroidism often leads to symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, and muscle discomfort, which can significantly impact the client's ability to perform daily activities. Addressing activity intolerance is crucial to prevent exacerbation of symptoms and promote the client's overall well-being. Choices A, B, and C are important nursing diagnoses as well, but in the context of hyperthyroidism, addressing activity intolerance takes precedence over the risk for injury related to exophthalmos, impaired social interaction related to emotional lability, and imbalanced nutrition due to hypermetabolism.

5. While assessing several clients in a long-term health care facility, which client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers?

• A. A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest
• B. An obese client who uses a wheelchair
• C. A client who had 3 incontinent diarrhea stools
• D. An 80-year-old ambulatory diabetic client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A 79-year-old malnourished client on bed rest. This client is at the highest risk for developing decubitus ulcers due to poor nutrition and immobility. Malnutrition can impair tissue healing and increase susceptibility to skin breakdown, while prolonged bed rest can lead to pressure ulcers. Choice B is incorrect because obesity can cushion pressure points and reduce the risk of pressure ulcers. Choice C is incorrect as incontinence predisposes to moisture-associated skin damage rather than pressure ulcers. Choice D is incorrect as an ambulatory client is less likely to develop pressure ulcers compared to bedridden clients.

Similar Questions