a client with a history of asthma is admitted to the emergency department with difficulty breathing which of these assessments is the highest priority
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Nutrition Exam

1. A client with a history of asthma is admitted to the emergency department with difficulty breathing. Which of these assessments is the highest priority for the nurse to perform?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Auscultation of breath sounds is the highest priority assessment in a client with a history of asthma experiencing difficulty breathing. It helps the nurse evaluate the severity of the asthma exacerbation by listening for wheezing, crackles, or decreased breath sounds. This assessment guides treatment decisions, such as administering bronchodilators or oxygen therapy. Measurement of peak expiratory flow, although important in assessing asthma severity, may not be feasible in an emergency situation where immediate intervention is needed. Observation of accessory muscle use and assessment of skin color are also important assessments in asthma exacerbation, but auscultation of breath sounds takes precedence in determining the need for urgent interventions.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an enteral feeding via an established NG tube. Which option is not part of the sequence the healthcare professional should follow to initiate the feeding?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct sequence for initiating enteral feeding includes verifying tube placement to ensure safety, checking the residual feeding contents to prevent complications, and then administering the feeding. Limiting protein intake is not a step in the sequence for initiating enteral feeding. Protein intake may be adjusted based on the patient's specific nutritional needs, but it is not a part of the immediate sequence for initiating the feeding. Therefore, option D is the correct answer. Options A, B, and C are essential steps to ensure the safe and effective administration of enteral feeding.

3. A client is being treated for congestive heart failure with furosemide (Lasix). Which of these findings would be most concerning to the nurse?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A rapid weight loss of 2 kg in 24 hours suggests significant fluid loss, which is concerning in clients on diuretics like furosemide. Increased urine output (choice A) is an expected effect of diuretic therapy. Decreased appetite (choice B) is a common side effect but not as concerning as rapid weight loss. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg (choice D) is slightly elevated but not the most concerning finding in a client being treated for congestive heart failure with furosemide.

4. A nurse checks a client who is on a volume-cycled ventilator. Which finding indicates that the client may need suctioning?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Restlessness is often a sign of respiratory distress or secretion build-up, indicating the need for suctioning. While drowsiness (choice A) can be a sign of hypoxia, it is not as immediate an indication for suctioning as restlessness. Complaint of nausea (choice B) and a pulse rate of 92 (choice C) are not directly related to the need for suctioning in a client on a volume-cycled ventilator.

5. A client who is pregnant and has hyperemesis gravidarum is being taught about nutrition at home by a nurse. Which of the following statements indicate that the client understands the teachings?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Eating crackers before getting out of bed can help manage nausea associated with hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice A is incorrect because drinking water with meals may exacerbate nausea. Choice B is incorrect as eating every 6 hours may not be frequent enough to combat nausea and vomiting. Choice D is incorrect because protein intake should not be limited during pregnancy, especially in cases of hyperemesis gravidarum.

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