HESI RN
HESI Nutrition Practice Exam
1. A nurse is reinforcing nutrition teaching with a client who has osteoporosis. Which of the following food selections should the nurse recommend to increase calcium in the client's diet?
- A. 1 medium apple
- B. 3 oz of lean beef
- C. 1 tbsp of cream cheese
- D. 1 cup of kale
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 1 cup of kale. Kale is rich in calcium, making it a suitable choice to increase calcium intake for individuals with osteoporosis. While fruits like apples (choice A) are nutritious, they are not high in calcium. Lean beef (choice B) is a good source of protein but not a significant source of calcium. Cream cheese (choice C) is also not a primary source of calcium compared to kale.
2. A client is being maintained on heparin therapy for deep vein thrombosis. The nurse must closely monitor which of the following laboratory values?
- A. Bleeding time
- B. Platelet count
- C. Activated PTT
- D. Clotting time
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Activated PTT is the correct lab value to monitor for clients on heparin therapy. Activated PTT (partial thromboplastin time) helps assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy by measuring the time it takes for blood to clot. Monitoring activated PTT ensures that the client is within the therapeutic range of heparin to prevent both clotting and bleeding complications. Bleeding time (Choice A) and platelet count (Choice B) are not specific indicators of heparin therapy effectiveness. Clotting time (Choice D) is not as sensitive as activated PTT in monitoring heparin therapy.
3. A client diagnosed with cirrhosis of the liver and ascites is receiving Spironolactone (Aldactone). The nurse understands that this medication spares the elimination of which element?
- A. Sodium
- B. Potassium
- C. Phosphate
- D. Albumin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which means it helps retain potassium while eliminating sodium. This is beneficial for patients with cirrhosis and ascites as they are at risk of low potassium levels. Choice A, Sodium, is incorrect as Spironolactone does not spare the elimination of sodium but rather helps eliminate it. Choice C, Phosphate, is incorrect as Spironolactone does not directly affect phosphate levels. Choice D, Albumin, is incorrect as Spironolactone does not spare the elimination of albumin.
4. A client wants to increase her daily intake of omega-3 fatty acids. Which of the following foods should the nurse suggest the client increase?
- A. Blueberries
- B. Soybean oil
- C. Citrus fruits
- D. Green tea
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Soybean oil. Soybean oil is a good source of omega-3 fatty acids, which are beneficial for heart health. Blueberries (choice A), citrus fruits (choice C), and green tea (choice D) are not significant sources of omega-3 fatty acids. Blueberries are rich in antioxidants, citrus fruits provide vitamin C, and green tea contains polyphenols, but they do not offer a substantial amount of omega-3 fatty acids compared to soybean oil.
5. A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client about dietary choices for celiac disease. Which of the following menu choices selected by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. Hamburger on a wheat bun
- B. Baked chicken and potato chips
- C. Bacon, lettuce, and tomato sandwich on rye toast
- D. Beef and barley soup with crackers
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because baked chicken and potato chips are gluten-free options suitable for a client with celiac disease. Choice A, a hamburger on a wheat bun, contains gluten, which is harmful to individuals with celiac disease. Choice C, a bacon, lettuce, and tomato sandwich on rye toast, also contains gluten. Choice D, beef and barley soup with crackers, includes gluten from the barley and crackers, making it unsuitable for someone with celiac disease.
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