Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving morphine sulfate for pain management. Which assessment finding requires immediate action?

• A. Constipation
• B. Drowsiness
• C. Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute indicates respiratory depression, a serious side effect of morphine sulfate that can lead to respiratory compromise and requires immediate intervention. Constipation, drowsiness, and nausea are common side effects of morphine but are not immediately life-threatening compared to respiratory depression. Monitoring and addressing a low respiratory rate are crucial in preventing further respiratory distress or failure.

2. A client is taking cetirizine hydrochloride (Zyrtec). The nurse checks for which of the following side effects of this medication?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Excitability
• C. Drowsiness
• D. Excess salivation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cetirizine hydrochloride (Zyrtec) is known to commonly cause drowsiness or sedation as a side effect. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of drowsiness when administering this medication. Choice A, Diarrhea, is not a common side effect of cetirizine. Choice B, Excitability, is not a typical side effect of this antihistamine; instead, it tends to cause drowsiness. Choice D, Excess salivation, is not associated with cetirizine use.

3. Desmopressin acetate (DDAVP) is prescribed for the treatment of diabetes insipidus. The nurse monitors the client after medication administration for which therapeutic response?

• A. Decreased urinary output
• B. Decreased blood pressure
• C. Decreased peripheral edema
• D. Decreased blood glucose level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Desmopressin promotes renal conservation of water by increasing the permeability of kidney collecting ducts to water, resulting in decreased urinary output. Therefore, the therapeutic response expected after administering desmopressin for diabetes insipidus is a reduction in urinary output.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus visits a health care clinic. The client's diabetes mellitus was previously well controlled with daily glyburide (DiaBeta). However, the fasting blood glucose level has recently been in the range of 180 to 200 mg/dL. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen, may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?

• A. Prednisone
• B. Phenelzine (Nardil)
• C. Atenolol (Tenormin)
• D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Prednisone is known to reduce the effectiveness of oral hypoglycemic medications like glyburide and insulin, which can result in hyperglycemia. Therefore, the addition of prednisone to the client's regimen could have contributed to the elevated fasting blood glucose levels observed.

5. A client presenting with complaints of not feeling well is seen in a clinic. The client is taking several medications for the control of heart disease and hypertension, including a beta-blocker, digoxin (Lanoxin), and a diuretic. A tentative diagnosis of digoxin toxicity is made. Which of the following assessment data would support this diagnosis?

• A. Dyspnea, edema, and palpitations
• B. Chest pain, hypotension, and paresthesia
• C. Double vision, loss of appetite, and nausea
• D. Constipation, dry mouth, and sleep disorder

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Double vision, loss of appetite, and nausea are classic signs of digoxin toxicity. Other signs may include bradycardia, visual disturbances, and confusion. These symptoms are indicators that the client may be experiencing adverse effects due to elevated levels of digoxin in the system, requiring immediate medical attention to prevent serious complications.

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