a nurse is assisting with the development of strategies to prevent foodborne illnesses for a community group the nurse should plan to include which of
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HESI RN

HESI Nutrition Practice Exam

1. A nurse is assisting with the development of strategies to prevent foodborne illnesses for a community group. The nurse should plan to include which of the following recommendations? (Select one that doesn't apply).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Discarding leftovers after 48 hours is not an effective recommendation to prevent foodborne illnesses. Leftovers should actually be discarded within 2 hours if they have been at room temperature. Choices A, B, and D are all effective strategies to prevent foodborne illnesses: avoiding unpasteurized dairy products reduces the risk of harmful bacteria, keeping cold food temperatures below 4.4°C (40°F) inhibits bacterial growth, and washing raw vegetables thoroughly removes contaminants.

2. A client has received 2 units of whole blood today following an episode of GI bleeding. Which of the following laboratory reports would the nurse monitor most closely?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels should be monitored closely after blood transfusions to assess the effectiveness and identify any complications. Monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels helps evaluate the patient's oxygen-carrying capacity and blood volume. While platelets are crucial for clotting, they are not typically affected immediately after a blood transfusion. White blood cell count monitoring is more relevant in assessing infection or immune response, not directly related to a blood transfusion. Bleeding time measures platelet function, which is not the primary concern immediately after a blood transfusion.

3. A client who is pregnant and has hyperemesis gravidarum is being taught about nutrition at home by a nurse. Which of the following statements indicate that the client understands the teachings?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Eating crackers before getting out of bed can help manage nausea associated with hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice A is incorrect because drinking water with meals may exacerbate nausea. Choice B is incorrect as eating every 6 hours may not be frequent enough to combat nausea and vomiting. Choice D is incorrect because protein intake should not be limited during pregnancy, especially in cases of hyperemesis gravidarum.

4. A client is receiving teaching about a high-fiber diet to manage constipation. Which statement indicates the best choice for a high-fiber diet?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because bran cereal is a high-fiber food that can effectively alleviate constipation by promoting regular bowel movements. Option A, an apple, while a healthy snack, may not provide as much fiber as bran cereal. Option B, sweet potatoes, are nutritious but may not be as high in fiber as bran cereal. Option D, almonds, are a good source of healthy fats and protein but do not provide as much fiber as bran cereal.

5. A client with heart failure has a prescription for digoxin. The nurse is aware that sufficient potassium should be included in the diet because hypokalemia in combination with this medication:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia increases the risk of dysrhythmias when taking digoxin, making potassium intake crucial. Digoxin toxicity is more likely in patients with low potassium levels, leading to an increased risk of dysrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypokalemia in combination with digoxin is primarily associated with dysrhythmias rather than oliguria, irritability, anxiety, or alteration of consciousness.

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