Nursing Elites

1. What nursing assessment of a paralyzed client would indicate the probable presence of a fecal impaction?

• A. Presence of blood in stools
• B. Oozing liquid stool
• C. Continuous rumbling flatulence
• D. Absence of bowel movements

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Oozing liquid stool.' In a paralyzed client, oozing liquid stool is a common sign of fecal impaction. This occurrence requires prompt intervention to prevent complications. Choice A, 'Presence of blood in stools,' is more indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding rather than fecal impaction. Choice C, 'Continuous rumbling flatulence,' is associated with gas movement in the intestines and not specifically linked to fecal impaction. Choice D, 'Absence of bowel movements,' could be a sign of constipation but does not directly point towards fecal impaction.

2. The nurse is instructing a 65-year-old female client diagnosed with osteoporosis. The most important instruction regarding exercise would be to

• A. Exercise by doing weight-bearing activities
• B. Exercise to reduce weight
• C. Avoid exercise activities that increase the risk of fracture
• D. Exercise to strengthen muscles and thereby protect bones

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Exercise by doing weight-bearing activities. Weight-bearing activities help strengthen bones and prevent further bone loss in clients with osteoporosis. This type of exercise includes activities like walking, dancing, and weightlifting, which help improve bone density. Choice B is incorrect because the primary focus should be on bone health, not weight reduction. Choice C is incorrect as avoiding all exercise activities that increase the risk of fracture can lead to muscle weakness and a decline in bone health. Choice D is also incorrect because while strengthening muscles is beneficial, the emphasis for osteoporosis management should be on weight-bearing exercises specifically.

3. A client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal surgery is transitioning from a clear liquid diet to a full liquid diet. The nurse should remind the client that which of the following items is included in a full liquid diet?

• A. Creamed peas
• B. Cottage cheese
• C. Chocolate pudding
• D. Applesauce

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, chocolate pudding. A full liquid diet consists of smooth, creamy foods like pudding. Creamed peas (choice A) are not typically allowed on a full liquid diet as they may contain solid pieces. Cottage cheese (choice B) and applesauce (choice D) are also not part of a full liquid diet as they are not in liquid form.

4. The nurse is caring for a client in hypertensive crisis in an intensive care unit. The priority assessment in the first hour of care is

• A. Heart rate
• B. Pedal pulses
• C. Lung sounds
• D. Pupil responses

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Assessing pupil responses is crucial in a client with hypertensive crisis to monitor for signs of increased intracranial pressure, which can indicate potential neurological complications. While heart rate, pedal pulses, and lung sounds are important assessments, they do not take precedence over neurological assessments in this critical situation.

5. The client with infective endocarditis must be assessed frequently by the home health nurse. Which finding suggests that antibiotic therapy is not effective and must be reported by the nurse immediately to the healthcare provider?

• A. Nausea and vomiting
• B. Fever of 103 degrees Fahrenheit (39.5 degrees Celsius)
• C. Diffuse macular rash
• D. Muscle tenderness

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A high fever, such as 103 degrees Fahrenheit (39.5 degrees Celsius), in a client with infective endocarditis indicates that the infection may not be responding to the antibiotics and requires immediate medical evaluation. Nausea and vomiting, diffuse macular rash, and muscle tenderness are not typically associated with the ineffectiveness of antibiotic therapy in infective endocarditis.

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