a client with chronic kidney disease has a serum potassium level of 65 meql which of these assessments is the most critical for the nurse to perform
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Nutrition Proctored Exam Quizlet

1. In a client with chronic kidney disease having a serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L, which assessment is the most critical for the nurse to perform?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Assessing cardiac status is crucial in hyperkalemia as high potassium levels can result in life-threatening arrhythmias. Monitoring the heart rhythm and ECG findings is essential to prevent cardiac complications. Neurological status, respiratory status, and gastrointestinal status are important assessments too, but in the context of hyperkalemia, cardiac status takes precedence due to the immediate risk of cardiac arrhythmias.

2. A nurse is assisting an adolescent client in the selection of complementary protein sources on the lunch menu. The client is a vegetarian who eats milk products but does not like beans. Which of the following food items should the nurse recommend?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Peanut butter and enriched bread provide complementary proteins, which are important for a vegetarian diet. Peanut butter is a good source of protein and when paired with enriched bread, it forms a complete protein source. Choice B, baked potato with sour cream, lacks complete protein. Choice C, bagel with cream cheese, also does not provide a complete protein source. Choice D, fruit salad and carrot sticks, do not contain sufficient protein to serve as a main protein source for a vegetarian diet.

3. A client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis has a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube for the administration of feedings and medications. Which nursing action is appropriate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For a client with a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube, flushing the tube adequately with water before and after use is essential. This action helps prevent clogging and ensures the proper administration of feedings and medications. Choice A is incorrect because pulverizing all medications into a powdery condition is not necessary for PEG tube administration. Choice B is incorrect as squeezing the tube to break up stagnant liquids may damage the tube. Choice C is incorrect because cleansing the skin around the tube daily with hydrogen peroxide can be too harsh and lead to skin irritation.

4. A nurse is assisting with the development of strategies to prevent foodborne illnesses for a community group. The nurse should plan to include which of the following recommendations? (Select one that doesn't apply).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Discarding leftovers after 48 hours is not an effective recommendation to prevent foodborne illnesses. Leftovers should actually be discarded within 2 hours if they have been at room temperature. Choices A, B, and D are all effective strategies to prevent foodborne illnesses: avoiding unpasteurized dairy products reduces the risk of harmful bacteria, keeping cold food temperatures below 4.4°C (40°F) inhibits bacterial growth, and washing raw vegetables thoroughly removes contaminants.

5. A nurse is reinforcing teaching to transition from breastfeeding to whole milk with the parents of an infant. Which of the following months of age should the nurse recommend for transitioning the infant to whole milk?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 12 months. Whole milk should be introduced at 12 months to ensure the infant's digestive system can handle the increased fat content. Introducing whole milk before 12 months can lead to digestive issues and potential allergies. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because transitioning to whole milk before 12 months is not recommended for infants due to their digestive system still developing and not being able to handle the higher fat content of whole milk.

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