Nursing Elites

1. A client has a chest tube in place following a left lower lobectomy inserted after a stab wound to the chest. When repositioning the client, the nurse notices 200 cc of dark, red fluid flows into the collection chamber of the chest drain. What is the most appropriate nursing action?

• A. Clamp the chest tube
• B. Call the surgeon immediately
• C. Prepare for blood transfusion
• D. Continue to monitor the rate of drainage

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate nursing action is to continue to monitor the rate of drainage. Clamping the chest tube is not recommended as it can lead to a tension pneumothorax. Calling the surgeon immediately may not be necessary at this point unless the drainage rate significantly increases or other concerning symptoms develop. Preparing for a blood transfusion is premature without further assessment and monitoring of the client's condition. Monitoring the rate of drainage allows the nurse to assess for any potential complications and ensure that the drainage amount is within expected limits.

2. A healthcare professional assesses a young adult in the emergency room following a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following neurological signs is of most concern?

• A. Flaccid paralysis
• B. Pupils fixed and dilated
• C. Diminished spinal reflexes
• D. Reduced sensory responses

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pupils fixed and dilated. Fixed and dilated pupils are a critical neurological sign that indicates severe neurological damage or brain herniation, posing a significant concern for the patient's condition. Flaccid paralysis (choice A) typically indicates lower motor neuron injury, while diminished spinal reflexes (choice C) and reduced sensory responses (choice D) may suggest various neurological issues but are not as acutely concerning as fixed and dilated pupils in this scenario.

3. A client who is pregnant and has hyperemesis gravidarum is being taught about nutrition at home by a nurse. Which of the following statements indicate that the client understands the teachings?

• A. I will drink water with my meals.
• B. I will eat every 6 hours throughout the day.
• C. I will eat crackers before I get out of bed in the morning.
• D. I will limit my protein intake.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Eating crackers before getting out of bed can help manage nausea associated with hyperemesis gravidarum. Choice A is incorrect because drinking water with meals may exacerbate nausea. Choice B is incorrect as eating every 6 hours may not be frequent enough to combat nausea and vomiting. Choice D is incorrect because protein intake should not be limited during pregnancy, especially in cases of hyperemesis gravidarum.

4. The nurse is caring for a client in atrial fibrillation. The atrial heart rate is 250, and the ventricular rate is controlled at 75. Which of the following findings is cause for the most concern?

• A. Diminished bowel sounds
• B. Loss of appetite
• C. A cold, pale lower leg
• D. Tachypnea

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A cold, pale lower leg is the most concerning finding as it indicates poor blood flow, potentially suggesting a serious circulatory problem that requires immediate attention. Diminished bowel sounds, loss of appetite, and tachypnea may be relevant but are not as indicative of a critical circulatory issue as a cold, pale lower leg.

5. A healthcare provider is collecting data from a client who is receiving chemotherapy and is showing manifestations of malnutrition. Which of the following indicates a Vitamin C deficiency?

• A. Dry, red conjunctiva
• B. Swollen, bleeding gums
• C. Inflammation of the tongue
• D. Pale, brittle nails

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Swollen, bleeding gums are a classic sign of scurvy, which is caused by a deficiency in Vitamin C. Dry, red conjunctiva, inflammation of the tongue, and pale, brittle nails are not specific manifestations of Vitamin C deficiency, making them incorrect choices.

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