HESI RN
HESI Nutrition Proctored Exam Quizlet
1. A client is receiving teaching about a high-fiber diet to manage constipation. Which statement indicates the best choice for a high-fiber diet?
- A. Eating one medium apple is a good snack option.
- B. Selecting a ½ cup of sweet potatoes for starch is a great choice.
- C. Choosing a ½ cup of bran cereal for breakfast is ideal.
- D. Opting for 1 ounce of almonds when hungry midday is recommended.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because bran cereal is a high-fiber food that can effectively alleviate constipation by promoting regular bowel movements. Option A, an apple, while a healthy snack, may not provide as much fiber as bran cereal. Option B, sweet potatoes, are nutritious but may not be as high in fiber as bran cereal. Option D, almonds, are a good source of healthy fats and protein but do not provide as much fiber as bran cereal.
2. A client has received 2 units of whole blood today following an episode of GI bleeding. Which of the following laboratory reports would the nurse monitor most closely?
- A. Bleeding time
- B. Hemoglobin and hematocrit
- C. White blood cells
- D. Platelets
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Hemoglobin and hematocrit levels should be monitored closely after blood transfusions to assess the effectiveness and identify any complications. Monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels helps evaluate the patient's oxygen-carrying capacity and blood volume. While platelets are crucial for clotting, they are not typically affected immediately after a blood transfusion. White blood cell count monitoring is more relevant in assessing infection or immune response, not directly related to a blood transfusion. Bleeding time measures platelet function, which is not the primary concern immediately after a blood transfusion.
3. The nurse is reviewing laboratory results on a client with acute renal failure. Which one of the following should be reported immediately?
- A. Blood urea nitrogen 50 mg/dl
- B. Hemoglobin of 10.3 g/dl
- C. Venous blood pH 7.30
- D. Serum potassium 6 mEq/L
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 6 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which can be life-threatening and requires immediate intervention. Hyperkalemia can lead to dangerous cardiac arrhythmias and must be addressed promptly. The other options are not as urgent. A blood urea nitrogen level of 50 mg/dl may indicate kidney dysfunction but does not require immediate intervention. Hemoglobin of 10.3 g/dl may suggest anemia, which needs management but is not an immediate threat. A venous blood pH of 7.30 may indicate acidosis, which is concerning but not as acutely dangerous as hyperkalemia.
4. A nurse is assisting an adolescent client in the selection of complementary protein sources on the lunch menu. The client is a vegetarian who eats milk products but does not like beans. Which of the following food items should the nurse recommend?
- A. Peanut butter and jelly with enriched bread
- B. Baked potato with sour cream
- C. Bagel with cream cheese
- D. Fruit salad and carrot sticks
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Peanut butter and enriched bread provide complementary proteins, which are important for a vegetarian diet. Peanut butter is a good source of protein and when paired with enriched bread, it forms a complete protein source. Choice B, baked potato with sour cream, lacks complete protein. Choice C, bagel with cream cheese, also does not provide a complete protein source. Choice D, fruit salad and carrot sticks, do not contain sufficient protein to serve as a main protein source for a vegetarian diet.
5. Which of these clients with associated lab reports is a priority for the nurse to report to the public health department within the next 24 hours?
- A. An infant with a positive stool culture for Shigella
- B. An elderly factory worker with a positive lab report for acid-fast bacillus smear
- C. A young adult commercial pilot with a positive histopathological examination for Pneumocystis carinii from an induced sputum
- D. A middle-aged nurse with a history of varicella-zoster virus and crops of vesicles on an erythematous base appearing on the skin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a positive acid-fast bacillus smear in an elderly factory worker suggests tuberculosis, a serious communicable disease that must be reported promptly to the public health department to prevent its spread. Choice A is incorrect as Shigella is an important pathogen, but it does not require immediate public health reporting. Choice C is incorrect because Pneumocystis carinii is an opportunistic pathogen and does not require urgent public health reporting. Choice D is incorrect as varicella-zoster virus causes chickenpox and shingles, both of which are not reportable diseases to the public health department.
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