Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving teaching about a high-fiber diet to manage constipation. Which statement indicates the best choice for a high-fiber diet?

• A. Eating one medium apple is a good snack option.
• B. Selecting a ½ cup of sweet potatoes for starch is a great choice.
• C. Choosing a ½ cup of bran cereal for breakfast is ideal.
• D. Opting for 1 ounce of almonds when hungry midday is recommended.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because bran cereal is a high-fiber food that can effectively alleviate constipation by promoting regular bowel movements. Option A, an apple, while a healthy snack, may not provide as much fiber as bran cereal. Option B, sweet potatoes, are nutritious but may not be as high in fiber as bran cereal. Option D, almonds, are a good source of healthy fats and protein but do not provide as much fiber as bran cereal.

2. A nurse is contributing to the plan of care of a client who has had a stroke. The client is experiencing severe dysphagia with choking and coughing while eating. Which of the following nutritional therapies should the nurse expect to include in the plan of care?

• A. NPO until dysphagia subsides
• B. Supplements via NG tube
• C. Initiation of total parenteral nutrition
• D. Mechanical soft diet

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Mechanical soft diet. A mechanical soft diet is appropriate for clients with severe dysphagia as it helps reduce the risk of choking and aspiration by providing food that is easier to swallow. Choice A, NPO until dysphagia subsides, may be necessary initially but is not a long-term solution. Choice B, supplements via NG tube, may be considered if the client is unable to meet their nutritional needs orally, but it does not address the texture modification needed for dysphagia. Choice C, initiation of total parenteral nutrition, is typically reserved for clients who cannot tolerate any oral intake and is not the first-line option for dysphagia management.

3. A 20-year-old client has an infected leg wound from a motorcycle accident and has returned home from the hospital. The client is to keep the affected leg elevated and is on contact precautions. The client wants to know if visitors can come. The appropriate response from the home health nurse is that:

• A. Visitors must wear a mask and a gown
• B. There are no special requirements for visitors of clients on contact precautions
• C. Visitors should wash their hands before and after touching the client
• D. Visitors -

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Visitors should wash their hands before and after touching the client.' When a client is on contact precautions, it is essential for visitors to practice good hand hygiene to prevent the spread of infection. While wearing a mask and a gown might be necessary for healthcare providers, it is not typically required for visitors. Option B is incorrect because there are indeed special requirements for visitors on contact precautions, including practicing good hand hygiene. Option D is incomplete and does not provide any guidance on infection prevention measures.

4. Which of these clients with associated lab reports is a priority for the nurse to report to the public health department within the next 24 hours?

• A. An infant with a positive stool culture for Shigella
• B. An elderly factory worker with a positive lab report for acid-fast bacillus smear
• C. A young adult commercial pilot with a positive histopathological examination for Pneumocystis carinii from an induced sputum
• D. A middle-aged nurse with a history of varicella-zoster virus and crops of vesicles on an erythematous base appearing on the skin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a positive acid-fast bacillus smear in an elderly factory worker suggests tuberculosis, a serious communicable disease that must be reported promptly to the public health department to prevent its spread. Choice A is incorrect as Shigella is an important pathogen, but it does not require immediate public health reporting. Choice C is incorrect because Pneumocystis carinii is an opportunistic pathogen and does not require urgent public health reporting. Choice D is incorrect as varicella-zoster virus causes chickenpox and shingles, both of which are not reportable diseases to the public health department.

5. When assessing a client for signs and symptoms of a fluid volume deficit, the nurse would be most concerned with which finding?

• A. Blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg
• B. Heart rate of 110 beats per minute
• C. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
• D. Urine output of 30 mL per hour

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: A low blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg is a significant finding indicating fluid volume deficit. In fluid volume deficit, the body tries to compensate by increasing heart rate (choice B) to maintain cardiac output. Respiratory rate (choice C) may increase as a compensatory mechanism, but it is not the primary concern in fluid volume deficit. Urine output (choice D) may decrease in response to fluid volume deficit, but it is a late sign and not the most concerning finding.

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