Nursing Elites

1. A newly graduated female staff nurse requests reassignment to another client because a male client is asking her for a date and making suggestive comments. Which response is best for the nurse manager to provide?

• A. I have to call the supervisor to get someone else to transfer to this unit to care for him.
• B. I know you are a good nurse and can handle this client in a professional manner.
• C. I'll talk to the client about his behavior and insist that he stop it immediately.
• D. I'll change your assignment, but let's talk about how a nurse should respond to this kind of client.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best response for the nurse manager to provide in this situation is option D, which involves changing the assignment to address the nurse's immediate concern. It also offers an opportunity to have a conversation with the nurse about how to professionally handle such situations in the future. Option A is not the best response as it does not address the underlying issue and simply shifts the problem to another staff member. Option B, while supportive, does not actively address the client's inappropriate behavior. Option C is not ideal as the nurse manager should handle discussions about inappropriate behavior with clients themselves rather than delegating it to the staff nurse.

2. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Heart rate of 60 beats per minute
• B. Blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg
• C. Presence of a new murmur
• D. Crackles in the lungs

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Crackles in the lungs. Crackles indicate fluid overload in the lungs, a critical sign in a client with heart failure. This finding suggests that the furosemide may not be effectively managing the fluid balance, and immediate intervention is required. Choices A, B, and C are not immediate concerns in this scenario. A heart rate of 60 beats per minute, a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg, and the presence of a new murmur are findings that may require monitoring or intervention but are not as urgent as crackles in the lungs in a client with heart failure.

3. A client with atrial fibrillation is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) and warfarin (Coumadin). Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Heart rate of 58 beats per minute
• B. Presence of a new murmur
• C. INR of 2.5
• D. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The presence of a new murmur in a client with atrial fibrillation may indicate a valvular problem or other complications, requiring immediate reporting. A heart rate of 58 beats per minute is within the normal range for some individuals with atrial fibrillation, so it is not an immediate concern. An INR of 2.5 is within the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, indicating appropriate anticoagulation. A blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is also within the normal range and does not pose an immediate threat to the client's health.

4. A client with urticaria due to environmental allergies is taking diphenhydramine. Which complaint should the nurse identify as a side effect of the OTC medication?

• A. Nausea and indigestion.
• B. Hypersalivation.
• C. Eyelid and facial twitching.
• D. Increased appetite.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nausea and indigestion. Diphenhydramine, an antihistamine, commonly causes gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and indigestion. This medication can have anticholinergic effects, leading to these symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypersalivation, eyelid and facial twitching, and increased appetite are not typically associated with diphenhydramine use.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Hemoglobin
• C. White blood cell count
• D. Serum creatinine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum potassium. When a client with chronic kidney disease is receiving erythropoietin therapy, monitoring serum potassium closely is essential. Erythropoietin therapy can lead to increased red blood cell production, which may cause potassium levels to rise, potentially resulting in hyperkalemia. Monitoring potassium levels helps prevent complications associated with hyperkalemia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not directly impacted by erythropoietin therapy in the context of CKD.

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