HESI RN
HESI Maternity Test Bank
1. Upon arrival in the nursery, a newborn infant is breathing satisfactorily but appears dusky. What action should the LPN/LVN take first?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
- B. Suction the infant's nares, then the oral cavity.
- C. Check the infant's oxygen saturation rate.
- D. Position the infant on the right side.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The priority action in this scenario is to check the infant's oxygen saturation rate. This will provide crucial information on the infant's oxygen levels and the need for immediate oxygen therapy. Assessing oxygen saturation is essential in determining the severity of hypoxia and guiding further interventions to ensure adequate oxygenation. Option A is not the priority as immediate intervention related to oxygenation is needed before notifying the healthcare provider. Suctioning (Option B) may be necessary but should come after assessing oxygen saturation. Positioning the infant (Option D) does not address the immediate need to evaluate oxygen levels.
2. The nurse is caring for a female client, a primigravida with preeclampsia. Findings include +2 proteinuria, BP 172/112 mmHg, facial and hand swelling, complaints of blurry vision and a severe frontal headache. Which medication should the nurse anticipate for this client?
- A. Clonidine hydrochloride
- B. Carbamazepine
- C. Furosemide
- D. Magnesium sulfate
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In the scenario presented, the client is exhibiting signs and symptoms of severe preeclampsia, including hypertension, proteinuria, facial and hand swelling, visual disturbances, and a severe headache. The medication of choice for preventing seizures in preeclampsia is magnesium sulfate. This drug helps to prevent and control seizures in clients with preeclampsia, making it the most appropriate option for this client. Clonidine hydrochloride (Choice A) is an antihypertensive medication used for managing hypertension but is not the first-line treatment for preeclampsia. Carbamazepine (Choice B) is an anticonvulsant used for seizure disorders like epilepsy and is not indicated for preeclampsia. Furosemide (Choice C) is a diuretic used to manage fluid retention but is not the drug of choice for treating preeclampsia.
3. During the newborn admission assessment, the nurse palpates the newborn's scrotum and does not feel the testicles. Which assessment technique should the nurse perform next to verify the absence of testes?
- A. Observe the urethral opening on the surface of the penis when the newborn voids.
- B. Perform transillumination of the scrotal sac to visualize shadows of the testes.
- C. Use a fingertip to palpate the inguinal canal for a retractile or undescended testis.
- D. Measure the size of the scrotal sac for length and width.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: If the testes are not palpated in the scrotum, the next step is to check the inguinal canal for a retractile or undescended testis. This technique allows the nurse to determine if the testes are located within the inguinal canal rather than the scrotum. It is essential to assess for the presence of testes in the inguinal canal to ensure proper diagnosis and management of any potential issues related to testicular positioning.
4. During a prenatal visit, the nurse discusses with a client the effects of smoking on the fetus. When compared with nonsmokers, mothers who smoke during pregnancy tend to produce infants who have
- A. lower Apgar scores.
- B. lower birth weights.
- C. respiratory distress.
- D. a higher rate of congenital anomalies.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Smoking during pregnancy is associated with intrauterine growth restriction, leading to lower birth weights. This occurs due to the harmful effects of smoking on fetal development, which can result in reduced nutrient and oxygen supply to the fetus, impacting its overall growth and leading to lower birth weights. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as smoking during pregnancy primarily affects fetal growth and development, leading to lower birth weights rather than lower Apgar scores, respiratory distress, or a higher rate of congenital anomalies.
5. The healthcare provider is assessing a 2-hour-old infant born by cesarean delivery at 39-weeks gestation. Which assessment finding should receive the highest priority when planning the infant’s care?
- A. Blood pressure 76/42 mmHg.
- B. Faint heart murmur.
- C. Respiratory rate of 76 breaths/minute.
- D. Blood glucose 45 mg/dl.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A high respiratory rate in a newborn is concerning as it may indicate respiratory distress, which requires immediate attention to ensure adequate oxygenation. Monitoring and addressing respiratory issues take precedence over other parameters in the initial assessment of a newborn. The blood pressure, heart murmur, and blood glucose levels are important but not as urgent as addressing potential respiratory distress in a newborn.
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