Nursing Elites

1. Twenty minutes after a continuous epidural anesthetic is administered, a laboring client's blood pressure drops from 120/80 to 90/60. What action should the healthcare provider take?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider or anesthesiologist immediately.
• B. Continue to assess the blood pressure every 5 minutes.
• C. Place the woman in a lateral position.
• D. Turn off the continuous epidural.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placing the woman in a lateral position is the appropriate action to improve venous return and cardiac output, helping to stabilize the blood pressure. This position can alleviate pressure on the inferior vena cava, reducing the risk of hypotension associated with epidural anesthesia. Turning off the continuous epidural would not be the initial action as it may not be necessary and could lead to inadequate pain relief for the client. Notifying the healthcare provider or anesthesiologist immediately is premature and should be done after attempting non-invasive interventions. Continuing to assess the blood pressure every 5 minutes is important, but placing the woman in a lateral position should be the first intervention to address the hypotension.

2. During a routine first-trimester prenatal exam, a pregnant client tells the nurse that she has noticed an increase in vaginal discharge that is white, thin, and watery. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Recommend explaining the normal physiological changes during pregnancy.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider of the complaint.
• C. Inform her that this is a normal physiological change.
• D. Prepare to provide education on vaginal health.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The increased vaginal discharge described by the pregnant client, which is white, thin, and watery, is a common physiological change during pregnancy. It is typically normal and attributed to hormonal fluctuations. The nurse should reassure the client that this type of discharge is expected during pregnancy and does not typically indicate an issue requiring medical intervention or treatment.

3. A postpartum client who is Rh-negative refuses to receive RhoGAM after the delivery of an infant who is Rh-positive. Which information should the nurse provide this client?

• A. RhoGAM prevents maternal antibody formation for future Rh-positive babies.
• B. RhoGAM is not necessary unless all of her pregnancies are Rh-positive.
• C. The Rh-positive factor from the fetus threatens her blood cells.
• D. The mother should receive RhoGAM when the baby is Rh-negative.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. RhoGAM is administered to Rh-negative individuals after exposure to Rh-positive blood to prevent the development of antibodies that could harm future Rh-positive babies during subsequent pregnancies. By refusing RhoGAM after the delivery of an Rh-positive infant, the mother risks developing these antibodies, which could lead to hemolytic disease in future pregnancies with Rh-positive babies. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to explain to the client that receiving RhoGAM prevents the formation of maternal antibodies against Rh-positive blood, safeguarding the health of future babies. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is incorrect because RhoGAM is necessary after exposure to Rh-positive blood, regardless of the Rh status of future pregnancies. Choice C is incorrect as it does not accurately convey the purpose of RhoGAM administration. Choice D is incorrect because RhoGAM is specifically given after exposure to Rh-positive blood, not when the baby is Rh-negative.

4. To confirm respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) in a newborn, what should the nurse assess?

• A. Assess diaphragmatic breathing.
• B. Assess heart sounds.
• C. Monitor blood oxygen levels.
• D. Check for signs of infection.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To confirm respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) in a newborn, the nurse should assess diaphragmatic breathing. In RDS, the baby may have difficulty breathing due to immature lungs, leading to shallow, rapid breathing movements. Assessing diaphragmatic breathing directly evaluates the respiratory effort and can help identify the presence of RDS. Choice B, assessing heart sounds, is not specific to diagnosing RDS but could be relevant for other conditions. Choice C, monitoring blood oxygen levels, is important but alone may not confirm RDS. Choice D, checking for signs of infection, is not a direct indicator of RDS but rather suggests a different issue.

5. During a non-stress test (NST) at 41-weeks gestation, the LPN/LVN notes that the client is not experiencing contractions, the fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline is 144 bpm, and no FHR accelerations are present. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Check the client for urinary bladder distention.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider of the nonreactive results.
• C. Have the mother stimulate the fetus to move.
• D. Ask the client if she has felt any fetal movement.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should ask the client if she has felt any fetal movement. This action is important as assessing for fetal movement can help determine if the absence of FHR accelerations is attributed to fetal sleep or decreased fetal activity. It is crucial to gather information directly from the client to aid in the assessment and decision-making process. This approach can provide valuable insights into the fetal well-being and guide further interventions if needed.

Similar Questions