Nursing Elites

1. A Mexican American client with epilepsy is being seen at the clinic for an initial examination. The nurse understands which primary purpose of including cultural information in the health assessment?

• A. Confirm the medical diagnosis.
• B. Make accurate nursing diagnoses.
• C. Identify any hereditary traits related to the epilepsy.
• D. Determine what the client believes has caused the epilepsy.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The primary purpose for including cultural information in the health assessment is to determine what the client believes has caused the illness. In Mexican American culture, epilepsy is seen as a reflection of physical imbalance. While gathering data on hereditary traits and formulating nursing diagnoses are important, they are not the primary reasons for including cultural information in the health assessment. It is crucial to understand the client's beliefs as they may impact their perceptions of health, treatment adherence, and overall care. It is not the nurse's role to confirm a medical diagnosis, as this is the responsibility of the healthcare provider.

2. During a routine office visit, which of the following developmental milestones should the nurse screen for in a 6-month-old child?

• A. standing while holding something
• B. rolling over
• C. sitting up
• D. creeping

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct developmental milestone for a 6-month-old child that should be screened during a routine office visit is rolling over. At this age, infants typically start rolling over from their stomach to their back and vice versa. Sitting up usually occurs between 7 and 8 months, creeping between 9 and 10 months, and standing while holding something between 8 and 10 months. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are developmentally appropriate but not typically expected at 6 months of age.

3. A nurse preparing to examine a client’s eyes plans to perform a confrontation test. The nurse tells the client that this test measures which aspect of vision?

• A. Near vision
• B. Color vision
• C. Distant vision
• D. Peripheral vision

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Peripheral vision. The confrontation test is a gross measure of peripheral vision. It compares the client’s peripheral vision with the nurse’s, assuming that the nurse’s vision is normal. During the test, the nurse positions themselves at eye level with the client, about 2 feet away, and directs the client to cover one eye with an opaque card. The nurse covers the eye opposite the client’s covered one and slowly moves a target (like a pencil) from the periphery in several directions. The client is asked to indicate when they see the target, which should coincide with when the nurse sees it. Near vision is tested using a handheld vision screener with various sizes of print, color vision with the Ishihara test, and distant vision with a Snellen chart. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not measure peripheral vision, which is the focus of the confrontation test.

4. A nurse is preparing to assess the fetal heart rate (FHR) of a client who is 14 weeks pregnant. Which piece of equipment does the nurse use to assess the FHR?

• A. Stethoscope
• B. Doppler transducer
• C. Fetoscope
• D. Pulse oximetry on the client and a fetoscope

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To assess the fetal heart rate of a client who is 14 weeks pregnant, the nurse should use a Doppler transducer. Fetal heart sounds can be heard with a fetoscope by 20 weeks of gestation. The Doppler transducer amplifies fetal heart sounds so that they are audible by 10 to 12 weeks of gestation, making it the most appropriate choice for this scenario. Fetal heart sounds cannot be heard with a stethoscope. Pulse oximetry is not used to auscultate fetal heart sounds, so it is an incorrect choice in this context.

5. A 35-year-old Latin-American client wishes to lose weight to reduce her chances of developing heart disease and diabetes. The client states, "I do not know how to make my diet work with the kind of foods that my family eats."? What should the nurse do first to help the client determine a suitable diet for disease prevention?

• A. Provide her with copies of the approved dietary guidelines from the American Diabetic Association and the American Heart Association.
• B. Ask the client to provide a list of the types of foods she eats to determine how to best meet her needs.
• C. Provide a high-protein diet plan for the client.
• D. Provide the client with information related to risk factors for heart disease and diabetes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to ask the client to provide a list of the types of foods she eats to determine how to best meet her needs. Assessment is the first step in helping the client establish a suitable diet for disease prevention. By understanding the client's current dietary habits, the nurse can tailor recommendations based on the approved dietary guidelines from the American Diabetic Association and the American Heart Association. Providing a high-protein diet plan without assessing the client's current diet may not align with her cultural preferences or health goals. While educating the client on risk factors for heart disease and diabetes is essential, it is not the initial step in developing a personalized dietary plan.

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