Nursing Elites

1. A male veteran who recently returned from a war zone has post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and is admitted to the psychiatric ward due to admitted suicidal ideation. On admission, the client’s family informed the healthcare provider that therapy sessions did not seem to be helping. Select only one intervention that has the highest priority.

• A. Administer paroxetine 40 mg as prescribed.
• B. Develop a list of therapy programs.
• C. Remove all shaving equipment.
• D. Determine if the client has a suicide plan.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The highest priority intervention in this scenario is to ensure the safety of the client who is admitted due to suicidal ideation. Removing all shaving equipment is crucial to prevent self-harm or suicide attempts using sharp objects. Administering medication or developing a list of therapy programs can be important but ensuring immediate safety takes precedence. Determining if the client has a suicide plan is also essential but not as urgent as removing potential means for self-harm.

2. What principle about patient-nurse communication should guide a nurse's fear of 'saying the wrong thing' to a patient?

• A. Patients tend to appreciate a well-meaning person who conveys genuine acceptance, respect, and concern for their situation.
• B. The patient is more interested in talking to you than listening to what you have to say and is not likely to be offended.
• C. Considering the patient's history, there is little chance that the comment will do any actual harm.
• D. Most people with a mental illness have by necessity developed a high tolerance for forgiveness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct principle guiding nurse-patient communication is that patients value genuine acceptance, respect, and concern. Choice A is the correct answer because showing genuine care and concern for the patient's situation fosters a positive and therapeutic relationship. Choice B is incorrect as effective communication involves active listening and responding appropriately, not assuming the patient is only interested in talking. Choice C is incorrect because a patient's history does not guarantee immunity to harm from inappropriate comments. Choice D is incorrect as it generalizes individuals with mental illness and forgiveness, which is not directly related to communication fears.

3. A client who is known to abuse drugs is admitted to the psychiatric unit. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering to a client who is exhibiting benzodiazepine withdrawal symptoms?

• A. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
• B. Perphenazine (Trilafon)
• C. Isocarboxazid (Marplan)
• D. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chlordiazepoxide (Librium) is the correct choice for managing benzodiazepine withdrawal symptoms. Benzodiazepines are drugs that can lead to physical dependence, and abrupt discontinuation can result in withdrawal symptoms. Chlordiazepoxide, a benzodiazepine itself, is often used in a controlled manner to taper off the drug gradually and manage withdrawal symptoms effectively. Choices A, Diphenhydramine, and B, Perphenazine, are not typically used to manage benzodiazepine withdrawal. Choice C, Isocarboxazid, is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) used in the treatment of depression and not indicated for benzodiazepine withdrawal.

4. A male client with schizophrenia is demonstrating echolalia, which is becoming annoying to other clients on the unit. What intervention is best for the RN to implement?

• A. Isolate the client from the other clients.
• B. Administer a PRN sedative.
• C. Avoid recognizing the behavior.
• D. Escort the client to his room.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for the RN to implement in this situation is to avoid recognizing the behavior. By not reinforcing the echolalia through recognition, the behavior is less likely to be perpetuated, and it can reduce annoyance to other clients on the unit. Isolating the client may lead to feelings of rejection and exacerbate the behavior. Administering a PRN sedative should not be the first line of intervention for echolalia, as it does not address the underlying cause. Escorting the client to his room does not actively address the behavior or provide a therapeutic response.

5. A client with postpartum depression receives a prescription for sertraline (Zoloft). What information is most important to include in client teaching?

• A. Avoid foods high in tyramine, such as processed meats, red wine, and Swiss cheese.
• B. Contact the healthcare provider immediately if suicidal thoughts occur.
• C. Increase activity level to include regular exercise.
• D. Contact the healthcare provider immediately if muscle stiffness occurs.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most critical information to include in client teaching for a client with postpartum depression starting sertraline (Zoloft) is to contact the healthcare provider immediately if suicidal thoughts occur. This is vital for the client's safety as antidepressants, including sertraline, can sometimes increase the risk of suicidal thoughts, especially at the start of treatment. Choices A, C, and D are not the most crucial information in this scenario. Choice A about avoiding foods high in tyramine is not directly related to sertraline use. Choice C about increasing activity level is important but not as critical as addressing suicidal ideation. Choice D about muscle stiffness is a potential side effect of sertraline but is not as urgent as monitoring for suicidal thoughts.

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