a laboring clients membranes rupture spontaneously the nurse notices that the amniotic fluid is greenish brown what intervention should the nurse impl
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HESI RN

Maternity HESI Quizlet

1. A laboring client’s membranes rupture spontaneously. The nurse notices that the amniotic fluid is greenish-brown. What intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the fetal heart rate. When amniotic fluid is greenish-brown, it may indicate the presence of meconium, which can be concerning as it may lead to fetal distress. Assessing the fetal heart rate will help determine the well-being of the fetus and guide further actions to ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby.

2. At 40-weeks gestation, a client presents to the obstetrical floor indicating that the amniotic membranes ruptured spontaneously at home. She is in active labor and feels the need to bear down and push. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The color and consistency of the amniotic fluid are crucial to assess for the presence of meconium, which may indicate fetal distress. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid can suggest fetal compromise and the need for further evaluation and monitoring. The estimated amount of fluid is less critical than assessing for meconium. While noting any odor when the membranes ruptured may provide some information, it is not as crucial as assessing for meconium. The time the membranes ruptured is important for documenting the timeline but does not directly impact immediate patient care like assessing for fetal distress.

3. A client in active labor is admitted with preeclampsia. Which assessment finding is most significant in planning this client's care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Patellar reflex 4+'. Hyperreflexia is a sign of severe preeclampsia and increases the risk of seizures, indicating the need for immediate intervention. Monitoring and addressing this finding are crucial in managing the client's condition and preventing complications.

4. The LPN/LVN is counseling a woman who wants to become pregnant. The woman tells the nurse that she has a 36-day menstrual cycle and the first day of her last menstrual period was January 8. The nurse calculates that the woman's next fertile period is

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To determine the fertile period, subtract 14 days from the length of the woman's menstrual cycle. In this case, 36-14 = 22. Counting forward from the first day of the last menstrual period (January 8), the fertile period falls around January 30-31. This is because ovulation typically occurs approximately 14 days before the start of the next menstrual period, marking the fertile window for conception.

5. The LPN/LVN is providing discharge teaching for a client who is 24 hours postpartum. The nurse explains to the client that her vaginal discharge will change from red to pink and then to white. The client asks, 'What if I start having red bleeding after it changes?' What should the nurse instruct the client to do?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: If the client experiences a return to red bleeding after transitioning to pink and white, it may indicate possible complications like hemorrhage or retained placental fragments. Instructing the client to reduce activity level and promptly notify the healthcare provider is crucial for timely evaluation and management of these potentially serious postpartum complications. Choice B is incorrect as assuming a knee-chest position is not the appropriate action for red bleeding postpartum. Choice C is incorrect as massaging the uterus without professional assessment can be dangerous. Choice D is incorrect because red bleeding after transitioning is not normal and should be evaluated promptly.

Similar Questions

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