a 34 week primigravida woman with preeclampsia is receiving lactated ringers 500ml with magnesium sulfate 20 grams at the rate of 3ghr how many mlhr s
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1. A 34-week primigravida woman with preeclampsia is receiving Lactated Ringer’s 500ml with magnesium sulfate 20 grams at the rate of 3g/hr. How many ml/hr should the nurse program the infusion pump?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate, divide the total quantity to be infused (500ml) by the total time (1 hour) which equals 500ml/hr. Since the magnesium sulfate is being given at 3g/hr, and 1g of magnesium sulfate is in 5ml of solution, the rate will be 3g/hr x 5ml/g = 15ml/hr. Therefore, the total infusion rate should be 500ml/hr + 15ml/hr = 515ml/hr. Hence, the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver 75ml/hr (515ml/hr total - 500ml/hr Lactated Ringer's rate). This choice is correct because it accounts for both the Lactated Ringer's and magnesium sulfate rates. Choice B, 100ml/hr, is incorrect as it does not consider the additional magnesium sulfate infusion rate. Choice C, 50ml/hr, is incorrect because it does not account for the magnesium sulfate infusion. Choice D, 25ml/hr, is incorrect as it is too low and does not consider the magnesium sulfate being infused concurrently.

2. A one-day-old neonate develops a cephalohematoma. The nurse should closely assess this neonate for which common complication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A cephalohematoma is a collection of blood between the skull and the periosteum. As the blood breaks down, there is an increased risk of jaundice due to the release of bilirubin from the breakdown of red blood cells. Jaundice is a common complication associated with cephalohematoma in neonates. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the neonate for signs of jaundice and manage it accordingly.

3. The healthcare provider prescribes terbutaline (Brethine) for a client in preterm labor. Before initiating this prescription, it is most important for the LPN/LVN to assess the client for which condition?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gestational diabetes. Terbutaline (Brethine) is known to cause hyperglycemia, so it is crucial to assess for gestational diabetes before administering it. Assessing for elevated blood pressure (choice B), urinary tract infection (choice C), or swelling in lower extremities (choice D) is not directly related to the potential side effect of terbutaline in causing hyperglycemia.

4. What advice is most important for a client in the first trimester of pregnancy experiencing nausea?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the first trimester of pregnancy, it is crucial to advise pregnant clients to avoid alcohol, caffeine, and smoking. These substances can worsen nausea and harm fetal development. By eliminating these substances, the client can help alleviate nausea and create a healthier environment for the developing fetus. Choices A, B, and D are not as critical in managing nausea during the first trimester. While relaxation techniques may help, avoiding harmful substances like alcohol, caffeine, and smoking takes precedence. Increasing fluid intake can be beneficial but not as crucial as avoiding harmful substances. Eliminating snacks between meals may not be necessary for all clients and is not directly related to managing nausea in the first trimester.

5. The nurse instructs a laboring client to use accelerated-blow breathing. The client begins to complain of tingling fingers and dizziness. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tingling fingers and dizziness are symptoms of hyperventilation, which can occur with accelerated-blow breathing. Instructing the client to breathe into her cupped hands can help rebreathe exhaled carbon dioxide, which can alleviate the symptoms by restoring the proper balance of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the blood. This intervention can be effective in managing the client's hyperventilation without the need for additional medical interventions at this point.

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