Nursing Elites

1. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is undergoing behavioral therapy. Which outcome should the nurse recognize as an indication that the client is responding positively to therapy?

• A. The client reports increased frequency of obsessive thoughts.
• B. The client demonstrates a decrease in compulsive behaviors.
• C. The client expresses a desire to leave therapy early.
• D. The client avoids participating in exposure tasks.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A decrease in compulsive behaviors is a positive response to behavioral therapy for OCD. Behavioral therapy aims to reduce these behaviors and promote healthier coping mechanisms. Option A, reporting an increased frequency of obsessive thoughts, would indicate a lack of improvement or worsening of symptoms. Option C, expressing a desire to leave therapy early, suggests resistance or dissatisfaction with therapy. Option D, avoiding participation in exposure tasks, goes against the principles of exposure therapy, which is commonly used in OCD treatment to help clients confront their fears and reduce anxiety.

2. An adolescent with anorexia nervosa is undergoing nutritional therapy. Which finding best indicates that the client is making progress in treatment?

• A. Client gains 2 pounds in a week.
• B. Client describes a positive body image.
• C. Client engages in recreational activities.
• D. Client begins to talk about future goals.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Weight gain is a crucial indicator of progress in the treatment of anorexia nervosa. In individuals with anorexia, restoring and maintaining a healthy weight is a primary goal to address the underlying nutritional deficiencies and health complications associated with the disorder. While choices B, C, and D are positive developments in the client's overall well-being and recovery journey, they are not as directly linked to the core issue of nutritional rehabilitation in anorexia nervosa. Describing a positive body image, engaging in recreational activities, and talking about future goals are important aspects of psychological and emotional recovery, but weight gain is a more immediate and objective measure of progress in treating anorexia nervosa.

3. Following involvement in a motor vehicle collision, a middle-aged adult client is admitted to the hospital with multiple facial fractures. The client’s blood alcohol level is high on admission. Which PRN prescription should be administered if the client begins to exhibit signs and symptoms of delirium tremens (DT)?

• A. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid) 2 mg IM
• B. Prochlorperazine (Compazine) 5 mg IM
• C. Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) 50 mg IM
• D. Lorazepam (Ativan) 2 mg IM

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Delirium tremens (DT) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that can occur in individuals with high blood alcohol levels. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the preferred medication for managing DT due to its efficacy in reducing symptoms such as agitation, hallucinations, and autonomic instability. Hydromorphone, Prochlorperazine, and Chlorpromazine are not indicated for the treatment of delirium tremens. Hydromorphone is an opioid analgesic, Prochlorperazine is an antiemetic, and Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic. Therefore, the correct choice is Lorazepam (Ativan) to address the symptoms associated with delirium tremens effectively.

4. A female client, who is wearing dirty clothes and has a foul body odor, comes to the clinic reporting feeling scared because she is being stalked. What action is most important for the nurse to take?

• A. Assure the client that she will be seen by a healthcare provider today.
• B. Recommend that the client speaks with a social worker.
• C. Ask the client if she feels comfortable sharing why she is being stalked.
• D. Offer the client a safe place to relax before interviewing her.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most important action for the nurse to take in this scenario is to offer the client a safe place to relax before interviewing her. The client's disheveled appearance and foul body odor suggest she may be in distress or facing challenging circumstances. By providing her with a safe and comfortable environment to relax, the nurse can help alleviate some of her distress and establish trust. This approach is crucial as the client is already feeling scared due to being stalked, indicating underlying mental health concerns. Assuring the client that she will be seen by a healthcare provider today (choice A) may not address her immediate need for safety and comfort. Recommending she speaks with a social worker (choice B) may be beneficial later but does not address the immediate need for a safe space. Asking the client if she feels comfortable sharing why she is being stalked (choice C) is not appropriate as the priority is ensuring her safety and comfort first.

5. Which therapeutic communication statement might a psychiatric-mental health registered nurse use when a patient's nursing diagnosis is altered thought processes?

• A. I know you say you hear voices, but I cannot hear them.
• B. Stop listening to the voices, they are NOT real.
• C. You say you hear voices, what are they telling you?
• D. Please tell the voices to leave you alone for now.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because it acknowledges the patient's experience of hearing voices, showing empathy and exploring the content of the hallucinations. This type of therapeutic communication encourages the patient to express their thoughts and feelings without judgment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they either deny the patient's experience, dismiss the hallucinations as not real, or suggest eliminating them, which can be perceived as invalidating the patient's feelings and experiences.

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