HESI RN
Mental Health HESI
1. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is undergoing behavioral therapy. Which outcome should the nurse recognize as an indication that the client is responding positively to therapy?
- A. The client reports increased frequency of obsessive thoughts.
- B. The client demonstrates a decrease in compulsive behaviors.
- C. The client expresses a desire to leave therapy early.
- D. The client avoids participating in exposure tasks.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A decrease in compulsive behaviors is a positive response to behavioral therapy for OCD. Behavioral therapy aims to reduce these behaviors and promote healthier coping mechanisms. Option A, reporting an increased frequency of obsessive thoughts, would indicate a lack of improvement or worsening of symptoms. Option C, expressing a desire to leave therapy early, suggests resistance or dissatisfaction with therapy. Option D, avoiding participation in exposure tasks, goes against the principles of exposure therapy, which is commonly used in OCD treatment to help clients confront their fears and reduce anxiety.
2. The RN documents the mental status of a female client who has been hospitalized for several days by court order. The client states, “I don’t need to be here,” and tells the RN that she believes that the TV talks to her. The RN should document these assessment statements in which section of the mental status exam?
- A. Insight and judgment.
- B. Mood and affect.
- C. Remote memory.
- D. Level of concentration.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The client's statement of not needing to be hospitalized and her belief that the TV talks to her indicate impaired insight and judgment. Insight and judgment evaluate the client's awareness of their condition and ability to make sound decisions. Mood and affect assess emotional state, remote memory evaluates recall of past events, and level of concentration assesses attention and focus. In this scenario, the client's lack of awareness of her need for hospitalization and presence of delusions about the TV speaking to her directly relate to insight and judgment, making choice A the correct option.
3. A client who is known to abuse drugs is admitted to the psychiatric unit. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering to a client who is exhibiting benzodiazepine withdrawal symptoms?
- A. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
- B. Perphenazine (Trilafon)
- C. Isocarboxazid (Marplan)
- D. Chlordiazepoxide (Librium)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Chlordiazepoxide (Librium) is the correct choice for managing benzodiazepine withdrawal symptoms. Benzodiazepines are drugs that can lead to physical dependence, and abrupt discontinuation can result in withdrawal symptoms. Chlordiazepoxide, a benzodiazepine itself, is often used in a controlled manner to taper off the drug gradually and manage withdrawal symptoms effectively. Choices A, Diphenhydramine, and B, Perphenazine, are not typically used to manage benzodiazepine withdrawal. Choice C, Isocarboxazid, is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) used in the treatment of depression and not indicated for benzodiazepine withdrawal.
4. A male client with bipolar disorder who began taking lithium carbonate five days ago is complaining of excessive thirst, and the RN finds him attempting to drink water from the bathroom sink faucet. Which intervention should the RN implement?
- A. Report the client’s serum lithium level to the healthcare provider (HCP).
- B. Encourage the client to suck on hard candy to relieve the symptoms.
- C. No action is needed since polydipsia is a common side effect.
- D. Tell the client that drinking from the faucet is not allowed.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging the client to suck on hard candy is the appropriate intervention in this situation. Excessive thirst is a common side effect of lithium therapy. Sucking on hard candy can help alleviate the symptom without posing any harm. Reporting the client's serum lithium level to the healthcare provider (Choice A) is not necessary at this point as the symptom of excessive thirst is a known side effect and does not indicate toxicity. No action is needed (Choice C) is incorrect because addressing the client's distress is essential. Telling the client that drinking from the faucet is not allowed (Choice D) does not address the underlying issue of excessive thirst and may cause further distress to the client.
5. What should the nurse initially assess when a high school girl reveals engaging in self-induced vomiting as a weight-control measure?
- A. National percentile of weight and height.
- B. Frequency of bingeing and purging behaviors.
- C. Perceptions of family and social relationships.
- D. School grades and extracurricular activities.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is assessing the frequency of bingeing and purging behaviors. This assessment is crucial in understanding the severity of the eating disorder and developing an appropriate treatment plan. Options A, C, and D are not the initial priority when dealing with a student engaging in harmful behaviors related to eating disorders. While weight and height, family relationships, and academic performance are important aspects to consider, the immediate focus should be on evaluating the behaviors directly linked to the reported issue.
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