HESI RN
HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone
1. A client with liver cirrhosis is receiving lactulose for hepatic encephalopathy. Which finding indicates the medication is effective?
- A. The client's level of consciousness improves.
- B. The client's ammonia level decreases.
- C. The client has three bowel movements daily.
- D. The client's liver enzymes return to normal.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "The client's ammonia level decreases." In hepatic encephalopathy, elevated ammonia levels contribute to neurological symptoms. Lactulose works by promoting the excretion of ammonia in the stool, leading to decreased serum ammonia levels. Therefore, a decrease in ammonia levels indicates that lactulose is effectively reducing ammonia buildup, improving hepatic encephalopathy symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because improvement in level of consciousness, bowel movements, or normalization of liver enzymes may not directly reflect the effectiveness of lactulose in reducing ammonia levels and improving hepatic encephalopathy.
2. A client receiving IV heparin reports abdominal pain and tarry stools. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Prepare to administer protamine sulfate.
- B. Continue the heparin infusion and notify the healthcare provider.
- C. Monitor the client's vital signs and assess abdominal pain.
- D. Administer a PRN dose of morphine sulfate.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to prepare to administer protamine sulfate. Abdominal pain and tarry stools are indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious side effect of heparin therapy. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin and is used to reverse its effects in cases of bleeding. Continuing the heparin infusion (Choice B) is not appropriate when the client is experiencing signs of bleeding. Monitoring vital signs and assessing abdominal pain (Choice C) is important but not the priority when immediate action is required to address potential bleeding. Administering morphine sulfate (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation; addressing the underlying cause of bleeding takes precedence.
3. The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has had a stroke. Which intervention should the nurse recommend to prevent aspiration during meals?
- A. Encourage the client to take large bites of food
- B. Advise the client to eat quickly to prevent fatigue
- C. Offer the client thin liquids with meals
- D. Instruct the client to sit upright while eating
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Instructing the client to sit upright while eating is crucial to prevent aspiration in stroke clients. This position helps in safe swallowing and reduces the risk of food or liquid entering the airway. Encouraging the client to take large bites of food (Choice A) can increase the risk of choking and aspiration. Advising the client to eat quickly (Choice B) may lead to fatigue and compromise safe swallowing. Offering thin liquids (Choice C) can also increase the risk of aspiration in stroke clients, as thicker liquids are usually recommended to prevent aspiration.
4. A client undergoing chemotherapy reports extreme fatigue. What should the nurse recommend to manage this symptom?
- A. Increase the dose of chemotherapy.
- B. Rest when needed and maintain a balanced diet.
- C. Perform light physical activity to reduce fatigue.
- D. Consider delaying the chemotherapy treatment.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct recommendation for managing chemotherapy-induced fatigue is to advise the client to rest when needed and maintain a balanced diet. Increasing the dose of chemotherapy (Choice A) would exacerbate the fatigue and other side effects. While light physical activity (Choice C) can be beneficial, extreme fatigue may require more rest initially. Delaying chemotherapy treatment (Choice D) should only be considered after consultation with the healthcare provider, as timely treatment is usually crucial in cancer care.
5. The nurse is caring for a client with pancreatitis who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL
- B. The client reports feeling weak and shaky
- C. The TPN bag is 5% dextrose
- D. The client reports feeling thirsty
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Weakness and shakiness can indicate hypoglycemia, a potential complication of TPN. Immediate intervention is necessary to assess blood glucose levels and provide treatment as needed. Choice A is incorrect because a blood glucose level of 200 mg/dL is within an acceptable range and does not require immediate intervention. Choice C is incorrect as a 5% dextrose TPN bag is a standard concentration. Choice D is also incorrect as feeling thirsty is not a critical assessment finding requiring immediate intervention in this context.
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