HESI RN
HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone
1. A client with liver cirrhosis is receiving lactulose for hepatic encephalopathy. Which finding indicates the medication is effective?
- A. The client's level of consciousness improves.
- B. The client's ammonia level decreases.
- C. The client has three bowel movements daily.
- D. The client's liver enzymes return to normal.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "The client's ammonia level decreases." In hepatic encephalopathy, elevated ammonia levels contribute to neurological symptoms. Lactulose works by promoting the excretion of ammonia in the stool, leading to decreased serum ammonia levels. Therefore, a decrease in ammonia levels indicates that lactulose is effectively reducing ammonia buildup, improving hepatic encephalopathy symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because improvement in level of consciousness, bowel movements, or normalization of liver enzymes may not directly reflect the effectiveness of lactulose in reducing ammonia levels and improving hepatic encephalopathy.
2. The nurse is conducting intake interviews of children at a city clinic. Which child is most susceptible to lead poisoning?
- A. An 8-year-old who lives in a housing project.
- B. A 2-year-old who plays on aging playground equipment.
- C. An adolescent who works in a paint factory.
- D. A 10-year-old with Type 1 diabetes.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Young children, like the 2-year-old playing on aging playground equipment, are at higher risk of lead poisoning due to their hand-to-mouth behavior and exploration of their environment. Aging playground equipment may have lead-based paint that can be ingested by the child. While children living in housing projects are also at risk due to lead-based paint in older buildings, the 2-year-old child playing on potentially lead-contaminated playground equipment is the most susceptible in this scenario. The adolescent working in a paint factory may face occupational hazards related to lead exposure, but the immediate risk from environmental sources is higher for the 2-year-old. Type 1 diabetes in a 10-year-old is not directly linked to an increased susceptibility to lead poisoning.
3. The nurse is teaching a client about lifestyle changes to manage hypertension. Which of the following should be emphasized?
- A. Increase daily intake of sodium.
- B. Exercise regularly and maintain a healthy weight.
- C. Reduce intake of potassium-rich foods.
- D. Drink alcohol in moderation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Regular exercise and maintaining a healthy weight are crucial lifestyle changes in managing hypertension. Exercise helps lower blood pressure and improves heart health, while maintaining a healthy weight reduces the risk of hypertension. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing daily intake of sodium can elevate blood pressure, reducing intake of potassium-rich foods is not recommended as potassium helps lower blood pressure, and drinking alcohol should be limited or avoided as it can raise blood pressure.
4. A client with pancreatitis reports severe pain after eating fatty foods. What intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Encourage the client to eat small, low-fat meals.
- B. Administer antispasmodic medication as prescribed.
- C. Instruct the client to avoid eating until the pain subsides.
- D. Increase the client’s intake of high-protein foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In pancreatitis, pain after consuming fatty foods is common due to increased pancreatic stimulation. Administering antispasmodics is the appropriate intervention as it can help reduce the pain by decreasing pancreatic enzyme secretion. Encouraging the client to eat small, low-fat meals (Choice A) is beneficial in managing pancreatitis symptoms but does not directly address the acute pain. Instructing the client to avoid eating until the pain subsides (Choice C) may lead to nutritional deficiencies and is not the best approach. Increasing high-protein foods intake (Choice D) is not recommended as it can put additional strain on the pancreas.
5. The mother of a 2-day-old infant girl expresses concern about a 'flea bite' type rash on her daughter's body. The nurse identifies a pink papular rash with vesicles superimposed over the thorax, back, buttocks, and abdomen. Which explanation should the nurse offer?
- A. We need to monitor the rash for signs of worsening or fever
- B. Your baby may have an allergic reaction to laundry detergent
- C. This is a common newborn rash that will resolve after several days
- D. This is likely a bacterial infection requiring antibiotics
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The rash described is typical of erythema toxicum neonatorum, a common and benign newborn rash that resolves on its own within a few days. No treatment is necessary, and the nurse should reassure the mother. Choice A is incorrect as the rash is self-limiting and does not require monitoring for worsening signs or fever. Choice B is incorrect as erythema toxicum neonatorum is not caused by an allergic reaction to laundry detergent. Choice D is incorrect as this rash is not indicative of a bacterial infection that requires antibiotics.
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