HESI RN
HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone
1. A client with liver cirrhosis is receiving lactulose for hepatic encephalopathy. Which finding indicates the medication is effective?
- A. The client's level of consciousness improves.
- B. The client's ammonia level decreases.
- C. The client has three bowel movements daily.
- D. The client's liver enzymes return to normal.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "The client's ammonia level decreases." In hepatic encephalopathy, elevated ammonia levels contribute to neurological symptoms. Lactulose works by promoting the excretion of ammonia in the stool, leading to decreased serum ammonia levels. Therefore, a decrease in ammonia levels indicates that lactulose is effectively reducing ammonia buildup, improving hepatic encephalopathy symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because improvement in level of consciousness, bowel movements, or normalization of liver enzymes may not directly reflect the effectiveness of lactulose in reducing ammonia levels and improving hepatic encephalopathy.
2. At 0600 while admitting a woman for a scheduled repeat cesarean section, the client tells the nurse that she drank a cup of coffee at 0400 because she wanted to avoid getting a headache. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Cancel the surgery
- B. Inform the anesthesia care provider
- C. Ask the client if she has had any other liquids
- D. Proceed with routine preparations
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Drinking liquids before surgery can increase the risk of aspiration during anesthesia. Therefore, the anesthesia care provider must be informed immediately to determine how to proceed, as this could delay or alter the surgical plan. Canceling the surgery without consulting the anesthesia care provider would be premature and could potentially lead to unnecessary actions. Asking the client if she has had any other liquids is important but not the first priority. Proceeding with routine preparations without addressing the potential issue of ingesting liquids before surgery could compromise the client's safety.
3. An older adult client with gastroenteritis has been taking the antidiarrheal diphenoxylate for the past 24 hours. What finding requires the nurse to take further action?
- A. Monitor the client’s fluid intake.
- B. Obtain a stool sample for testing.
- C. Administer a laxative to clear the infection.
- D. Assess skin turgor and provide fluids.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Assessing skin turgor is crucial as tented skin turgor indicates dehydration, which can be worsened by antidiarrheal medications like diphenoxylate. Providing fluids is essential to address dehydration in this client. Monitoring fluid intake (choice A) is important, but assessing skin turgor takes precedence in this situation. Obtaining a stool sample for testing (choice B) could be necessary for diagnostic purposes but is not the immediate priority. Administering a laxative (choice C) is contraindicated in this case as it can worsen the client's condition by further exacerbating fluid loss.
4. A client with acute kidney injury has an elevated creatinine level. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Administer diuretics as prescribed.
- B. Prepare the client for dialysis.
- C. Restrict the client’s fluid intake.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prepare the client for dialysis. Clients with acute kidney injury and elevated creatinine may require dialysis to support kidney function and remove waste products from the blood. Preparing for dialysis ensures timely intervention in preventing further complications. Administering diuretics (Choice A) may worsen the client's condition by further compromising kidney function. Restricting fluid intake (Choice C) may be necessary in some cases, but it is not the priority over preparing for dialysis. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is important, but the immediate priority is to prepare for dialysis to address the acute kidney injury and elevated creatinine level.
5. A client with myasthenia gravis (MG) is receiving immunosuppressive therapy. Recent lab tests show decreased serum magnesium. What nursing action is most important?
- A. Observe rhythm on telemetry monitor.
- B. Check for visual difficulties.
- C. Assess for hip and hand joint pain.
- D. Note the most recent hemoglobin level.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Magnesium plays a crucial role in maintaining normal cardiac rhythms, particularly in patients with cardiac conditions. Abnormal levels can lead to arrhythmias, which is why continuous monitoring of the heart's electrical activity is important. Magnesium's effect on neuromuscular and cardiac function makes it essential to monitor its levels, and any discrepancies can impact treatment decisions. Checking for visual difficulties (choice B) may be important in MG but is not the priority in the context of decreased serum magnesium. Assessing for hip and hand joint pain (choice C) is not directly related to the issue of decreased serum magnesium. Noting the most recent hemoglobin level (choice D) is not the priority in this situation compared to monitoring the cardiac rhythm due to low magnesium levels.
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