a client with liver cirrhosis is receiving lactulose for hepatic encephalopathy which finding indicates the medication is effective
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone

1. A client with liver cirrhosis is receiving lactulose for hepatic encephalopathy. Which finding indicates the medication is effective?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "The client's ammonia level decreases." In hepatic encephalopathy, elevated ammonia levels contribute to neurological symptoms. Lactulose works by promoting the excretion of ammonia in the stool, leading to decreased serum ammonia levels. Therefore, a decrease in ammonia levels indicates that lactulose is effectively reducing ammonia buildup, improving hepatic encephalopathy symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because improvement in level of consciousness, bowel movements, or normalization of liver enzymes may not directly reflect the effectiveness of lactulose in reducing ammonia levels and improving hepatic encephalopathy.

2. A client is admitted for first and second-degree burns on the face, neck, anterior chest, and hands. The nurse's priority should be

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing for dyspnea or stridor is crucial as these are signs of airway compromise, which is a priority concern in burns involving the face. Burns on the face can lead to airway swelling or compromise due to airway proximity, making respiratory assessment the top priority. Covering the areas with dry sterile dressings, initiating intravenous therapy, and administering pain medication are important interventions but assessing for airway issues takes precedence in this situation.

3. When a client is suspected of having a stroke, what is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to perform a neurological assessment. When a stroke is suspected, the priority action is to assess the client neurologically to determine the extent of brain injury and identify any immediate risks, such as impaired airway, speech deficits, or loss of motor function. This assessment helps in early recognition of signs that are essential for timely intervention and guides further treatment, such as administering tissue plasminogen activator (tPA), if appropriate. Positioning the client in a supine position or checking the blood glucose level can be important but not the priority when a stroke is suspected.

4. The healthcare provider prescribes celtazidime for an infant, IM, every 8 hours. The vial is 500 mg with a concentration of 100 mg/ml after reconstitution. How many ml should the nurse administer?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To administer 35 mg of celtazidime from a 100 mg/ml solution, the nurse should give 0.4 ml of the reconstituted celtazidime solution. The calculation is 35 mg / 100 mg/ml = 0.35 ml, but since the vial is 500 mg, the answer is 0.35 ml * (500 mg / 100 mg) = 0.4 ml. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the provided information.

5. An adult male is brought to the emergency department following a motorcycle accident, presenting with periorbital bruising and bloody drainage from both ears. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the patient's presentation with periorbital bruising and bloody ear drainage suggests a basilar skull fracture. Projectile vomiting, as described in choice D, is concerning for increased intracranial pressure due to the skull fracture. This finding warrants immediate intervention to prevent further neurological compromise. Choices A, B, and C are not the priority in this situation. Rebound abdominal tenderness (choice A) is indicative of intra-abdominal injury but is not as urgent as managing potential intracranial issues. Diminished breath sounds (choice B) and rib pain with deep inspiration (choice C) may suggest underlying chest injuries, which need attention but are not as immediately life-threatening as increased intracranial pressure.

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