Nursing Elites

1. A client with liver cirrhosis is receiving lactulose for hepatic encephalopathy. Which finding indicates the medication is effective?

• A. The client's level of consciousness improves.
• B. The client's ammonia level decreases.
• C. The client has three bowel movements daily.
• D. The client's liver enzymes return to normal.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "The client's ammonia level decreases." In hepatic encephalopathy, elevated ammonia levels contribute to neurological symptoms. Lactulose works by promoting the excretion of ammonia in the stool, leading to decreased serum ammonia levels. Therefore, a decrease in ammonia levels indicates that lactulose is effectively reducing ammonia buildup, improving hepatic encephalopathy symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because improvement in level of consciousness, bowel movements, or normalization of liver enzymes may not directly reflect the effectiveness of lactulose in reducing ammonia levels and improving hepatic encephalopathy.

2. The nurse is conducting intake interviews of children at a city clinic. Which child is most susceptible to lead poisoning?

• A. An 8-year-old who lives in a housing project.
• B. A 2-year-old who plays on aging playground equipment.
• C. An adolescent who works in a paint factory.
• D. A 10-year-old with Type 1 diabetes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Young children, like the 2-year-old playing on aging playground equipment, are at higher risk of lead poisoning due to their hand-to-mouth behavior and exploration of their environment. Aging playground equipment may have lead-based paint that can be ingested by the child. While children living in housing projects are also at risk due to lead-based paint in older buildings, the 2-year-old child playing on potentially lead-contaminated playground equipment is the most susceptible in this scenario. The adolescent working in a paint factory may face occupational hazards related to lead exposure, but the immediate risk from environmental sources is higher for the 2-year-old. Type 1 diabetes in a 10-year-old is not directly linked to an increased susceptibility to lead poisoning.

3. A client recently started on warfarin therapy. What laboratory value is most important to monitor for this client?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. Creatinine level
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) is the most important laboratory value to monitor for clients on warfarin therapy. PT helps determine how long it takes blood to clot and ensures the warfarin dose is within the therapeutic range to prevent either excessive bleeding or clotting. Monitoring platelet count is important for assessing the risk of bleeding, but PT is more specific to warfarin therapy. Creatinine level and BUN are indicators of kidney function and are not directly related to warfarin therapy.

4. The nurse is assessing a client with a history of schizophrenia who reports feeling sedated after starting a new antipsychotic medication. Which intervention is most appropriate?

• A. Reassure the client that sedation will subside with continued use
• B. Instruct the client to take the medication at bedtime
• C. Teach the client to take the medication with food
• D. Consult the healthcare provider to reduce the dosage

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Instructing the client to take the medication at bedtime is the most appropriate intervention. Taking antipsychotic medications at bedtime can help reduce the impact of sedation on the client's daily activities. This approach allows the client to sleep through the sedative effects. Choice A is incorrect because just reassuring the client may not address the immediate issue of sedation. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medication with food does not directly address the sedation concern. Choice D is not the first-line intervention; adjusting the dosage should be done by the healthcare provider after assessing the client's response to the medication.

5. An adult client with a broken femur reports muscle spasms. What action should the nurse implement while awaiting surgery?

• A. Check the client's most recent electrolyte levels.
• B. Administer a PRN dose of muscle relaxant.
• C. Reduce the weight on the traction device.
• D. Encourage oral fluid intake to relieve muscle tension.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement while awaiting surgery for a client with muscle spasms due to a broken femur is to encourage oral fluid intake to relieve muscle tension. Dehydration can exacerbate muscle spasms, so increasing fluid intake can help alleviate them. Checking electrolyte levels may not directly address muscle spasms in this situation. Administering a muscle relaxant should be based on a healthcare provider's prescription, and traction weight adjustments should only be made by the provider overseeing the client's care.

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