HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam
1. A client with heart failure is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) and furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Heart rate of 60 beats per minute
- B. Apical pulse of 58 beats per minute
- C. Presence of a new murmur
- D. Blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The presence of a new murmur in a client with heart failure receiving digoxin and furosemide is concerning as it may indicate valvular problems or other complications that require immediate intervention. A heart rate of 60 beats per minute and an apical pulse of 58 beats per minute are within normal limits for a client with heart failure on these medications. A blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg, while slightly low, may be expected due to the diuretic effect of furosemide and may not require immediate intervention unless the client is symptomatic.
2. The healthcare provider explains through an interpreter the risks and benefits of a scheduled surgical procedure to a non-English speaking female client. The client gives verbal consent, and the healthcare provider leaves, instructing the nurse to witness the signature on the consent form. The client and the interpreter then speak together in the foreign language for an additional 2 minutes until the interpreter concludes, 'She says it is OK.' What action should the nurse take next?
- A. Ask for a full explanation from the interpreter of the witnessed discussion.
- B. Have the client sign the consent form.
- C. Document the conversation and witness the consent.
- D. Ask the client directly if she has any questions.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to ask for a full explanation from the interpreter of the witnessed discussion. Verbal consent is not sufficient; it is crucial to ensure that the client fully comprehends the risks and benefits of the surgical procedure. By asking the interpreter to provide a detailed explanation of the discussion, the nurse can confirm that the client has given informed consent. Having the client sign the consent form (Choice B) without ensuring complete understanding may lead to potential misunderstandings. Documenting the conversation and witnessing the consent (Choice C) is not enough to guarantee the client's comprehension. Asking the client directly if she has any questions (Choice D) may not be effective if language barriers persist.
3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is admitted with a new onset of confusion. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Obtain a blood glucose level.
- B. Administer an anticoagulant as prescribed.
- C. Perform a neurological assessment.
- D. Administer aspirin as prescribed.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Performing a neurological assessment is the priority in this situation as it helps in evaluating the cause of the new onset of confusion in a client with atrial fibrillation. This assessment will provide crucial information about the client's neurological status, which can guide further interventions. Obtaining a blood glucose level (Choice A) is important but should not be the first step when dealing with a new onset of confusion. Administering an anticoagulant (Choice B) or aspirin (Choice D) may be necessary depending on the underlying cause, but assessing the neurological status comes first to determine the appropriate course of action.
4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an exacerbation. Which clinical finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Oxygen saturation of 90%
- B. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
- C. Use of accessory muscles
- D. Inspiratory crackles
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The use of accessory muscles in a client with COPD indicates increased work of breathing and may signal respiratory failure, requiring immediate intervention. This finding suggests that the patient is struggling to breathe effectively. Oxygen saturation of 90% is low but not critically low, while a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is slightly elevated but not as concerning as the increased work of breathing indicated by the use of accessory muscles. Inspiratory crackles may be present in COPD due to underlying conditions like pneumonia but do not require immediate intervention as the use of accessory muscles does.
5. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Use of accessory muscles
- B. Oxygen saturation of 90%
- C. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute
- D. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Use of accessory muscles. This finding indicates increased work of breathing in a client with COPD and may signal respiratory failure, requiring immediate intervention. In COPD, the use of accessory muscles suggests that the client is in distress and struggling to breathe effectively. Oxygen saturation of 90% is within an acceptable range for a client with COPD receiving supplemental oxygen and does not require immediate intervention. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is slightly elevated but not a critical finding. A blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within the normal range for an adult and does not indicate a need for immediate intervention in this scenario.
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