a client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide the nurse notes that the clients potassium level is 31 meql what is the nurses priority action
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone

1. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. The nurse notes that the client's potassium level is 3.1 mEq/L. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A potassium level of 3.1 mEq/L is considered low, indicating hypokalemia. Administering a potassium supplement is the nurse's priority action to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias associated with low potassium levels. Encouraging the client to eat potassium-rich foods is beneficial in the long term but may not rapidly correct the low potassium level. Holding the next dose of furosemide may worsen the client's heart failure symptoms. Increasing the client's fluid intake is not the priority action in this situation; addressing the low potassium level takes precedence to prevent potential serious complications.

2. Which foods should a healthcare provider recommend for a child with phenylketonuria (PKU) to avoid?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Foods sweetened with aspartame.' Children with PKU must avoid foods containing aspartame because it breaks down into phenylalanine, which can worsen their condition. Choice A, fresh fruit and vegetables, are generally healthy and safe for individuals with PKU. Choice C, bread with honey, is also safe unless the bread contains artificial sweeteners like aspartame. Choice D, gluten-rich bread, is not specifically problematic for individuals with PKU unless it contains aspartame or other substances high in phenylalanine.

3. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed heparin therapy. What laboratory value should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor the client’s partial thromboplastin time (PTT). During heparin therapy for DVT, it is essential to monitor the PTT to assess the effectiveness of the medication in preventing clot formation. Monitoring the PTT helps ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range for anticoagulation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because liver function tests, prothrombin time (PT), and red blood cell count are not specifically monitored to assess the effectiveness of heparin therapy in preventing clot formation.

4. A client who gave birth 48 hours ago has decided to bottle-feed the infant. The nurse observes that both breasts were swollen, warm, and tender on palpation during the assessment. Which instruction should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to apply ice to the breasts for comfort. Applying ice can help reduce swelling and discomfort associated with engorgement in a woman who is not breastfeeding. Expressing milk manually would stimulate further milk production, which is not desired in this case. Wearing a tight bra could increase discomfort by putting pressure on the engorged breasts. Warm showers may actually increase swelling due to the vasodilation effect of heat.

5. A client with congestive heart failure is prescribed digoxin. What symptom indicates digoxin toxicity?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Blurred vision or seeing yellow halos around objects are signs of digoxin toxicity, which can be life-threatening. These symptoms indicate an overdose of digoxin, requiring immediate medical attention. Muscle weakness and fatigue (Choice A) are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Increased appetite and weight gain (Choice B) are not indicative of digoxin toxicity either. Nausea and vomiting (Choice C) are common side effects of digoxin but are not specific signs of toxicity. Therefore, the correct answer is to monitor for blurred vision or seeing yellow halos around objects.

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