Nursing Elites

1. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Heart rate of 60 beats per minute
• B. Blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg
• C. Crackles in the lungs
• D. Presence of a new murmur

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Crackles in the lungs indicate fluid overload, a common issue in heart failure patients. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent worsening heart failure symptoms and potential complications. A heart rate of 60 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg are within normal ranges for many individuals and do not typically require immediate intervention in this context. The presence of a new murmur may be important to monitor but is not the priority when crackles in the lungs suggest fluid overload.

2. The nurse is preparing a 50 ml dose of 50% dextrose IV for a client with insulin shock. What is the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Dilute the dextrose in one liter of 0.9% Normal Saline solution.
• B. Mix the dextrose in a 50 ml piggyback for a total volume of 100 ml.
• C. Push the undiluted dextrose slowly through the current IV infusion.
• D. Ask the pharmacist to add the dextrose to a TPN solution.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct immediate intervention by the nurse in this situation is to push the undiluted 50% dextrose slowly through the current IV infusion. This is because in cases of insulin shock, where the client has dangerously low blood sugar levels, administering 50% dextrose directly into the bloodstream helps rapidly increase blood glucose levels. Choice A is incorrect because diluting the dextrose in one liter of normal saline would delay the administration of glucose, which is needed urgently. Choice B is incorrect as mixing the dextrose in a piggyback solution would also delay the administration of the concentrated dextrose. Choice D is incorrect because adding dextrose to a TPN solution is not the immediate intervention needed to address the low blood sugar levels in a client experiencing insulin shock.

3. An adult female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder. The nurse notices the client has more energy and is giving her belongings away. Which intervention is best for the nurse to implement?

• A. Support the client by praising her progress.
• B. Ask the client if she has had any recent thoughts of harming herself.
• C. Reassure the client about the effectiveness of antidepressant drugs.
• D. Advise the client to keep her belongings for discharge.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention is to ask the client if she has had any recent thoughts of harming herself because increased energy and giving away belongings can be signs of suicidal ideation. Choice A is incorrect as it does not address the potential risk of self-harm. Choice C is incorrect because reassurance about medication effectiveness may not be appropriate in this situation. Choice D is incorrect as it dismisses the client's current behavior without addressing the underlying concern of potential self-harm.

4. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is admitted with an exacerbation. Which laboratory value should be monitored closely?

• A. Arterial blood gas (ABG) values
• B. Serum potassium level
• C. Serum sodium level
• D. Serum magnesium level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Serum potassium level. In COPD, especially when the client is receiving diuretics or corticosteroids, monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial. These medications can lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. Arterial blood gas (choice A) values are important in assessing respiratory status but are not the primary concern related to medication side effects. Serum sodium (choice C) and magnesium (choice D) levels are also important, but in the context of COPD exacerbation and medication effects, potassium monitoring takes precedence.

5. The nurse is caring for a 17-year-old male who fell 20 feet 5 months ago while climbing the side of a cliff and has been in a sustained vegetative state since the accident. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Talk directly to the adolescent while providing care
• B. Maintain silence during care to avoid overstimulation
• C. Play soothing music in the background
• D. Limit visitors to immediate family only

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Talking directly to the adolescent is the most appropriate intervention in this scenario. It helps maintain a sense of connection and respect, even if the response is not evident. Maintaining silence may lead to isolation and hinder any potential communication attempts. Playing soothing music may not provide the personal interaction needed for connection. Limiting visitors to immediate family only may deprive the patient of diverse interactions that could be beneficial for their emotional well-being.

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