Nursing Elites

1. A client who had a gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD) evacuated 2 days ago is being monitored for choriocarcinoma. She lives in a rural area, and her husband takes the family car to work daily, leaving her without transportation during the day. What intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Teach the client about the use of a home pregnancy test.
• B. Schedule a weekly home visit to draw hCG values.
• C. Make a 5-week follow-up appointment with the healthcare provider.
• D. Begin chemotherapy administration during the first home visit.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Scheduling weekly home visits to monitor hCG levels is critical for early detection of choriocarcinoma, a potential complication of GTD. Choice A is incorrect because a home pregnancy test is not the appropriate method to monitor for choriocarcinoma. Choice C is less frequent than necessary for close monitoring. Choice D is incorrect as chemotherapy administration should be based on confirmed diagnosis and treatment plan, not initiated during the first home visit.

2. The nurse is reinforcing home care instructions with a client who is being discharged following a transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP). Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the client teaching?

• A. Avoid strenuous activity for 6 weeks.
• B. Report fresh blood in the urine.
• C. Take acetaminophen for a fever over 101°F.
• D. Consume 6 to 8 glasses of water daily.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Reporting fresh blood in the urine is crucial as it may indicate postoperative complications requiring immediate attention. This symptom can be a sign of bleeding, infection, or other issues that need prompt medical evaluation. Avoiding strenuous activity for 6 weeks is important but not as urgent as reporting fresh blood. Taking acetaminophen for a fever over 101°F is relevant but addressing fresh blood in the urine takes precedence. Consuming an adequate amount of water daily is beneficial but not as critical as recognizing and reporting signs of potential complications.

3. An adult female client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) asks the nurse if she can continue taking over-the-counter medications. Which medication provides the greatest threat to this client?

• A. Magnesium hydroxide (Maalox).
• B. Birth control pills.
• C. Cough syrup containing codeine.
• D. Cold medication containing alcohol.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Magnesium hydroxide (Maalox). In clients with CKD, magnesium can accumulate to toxic levels due to decreased excretion by the kidneys. Therefore, it poses the greatest threat to this client population. Choice B, birth control pills, is not typically contraindicated in CKD. Choice C, cough syrup containing codeine, may require dose adjustments but is not the greatest threat. Choice D, cold medication containing alcohol, is a concern mainly in liver disease, not CKD.

4. Following a lumbar puncture, a client voices several complaints. What complaint indicates to the nurse that the client is experiencing a complication?

• A. I am having pain in my lower back when I move my legs
• B. My throat hurts when I swallow
• C. I feel sick to my stomach and am going to throw up
• D. I have a headache that gets worse when I sit up

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A post-lumbar puncture headache, ranging from mild to severe, may occur as a result of leakage of cerebrospinal fluid at the puncture site. This complication is usually managed by bed rest, analgesics, and hydration. Choices A, B, and C do not directly indicate complications associated with a lumbar puncture. Pain in the lower back when moving legs, a sore throat when swallowing, and nausea with a feeling of vomiting are not typical complications of lumbar puncture.

5. The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which finding is most concerning?

• A. Jugular venous distention
• B. Crackles in the lungs
• C. Shortness of breath
• D. Peripheral edema

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Shortness of breath is most concerning in a client with left-sided heart failure as it indicates pulmonary congestion, requiring immediate intervention. Jugular venous distention (Choice A) is a sign of increased central venous pressure but is not as concerning as pulmonary congestion. Crackles in the lungs (Choice B) are common in heart failure due to fluid accumulation but are not as immediately concerning as severe shortness of breath. Peripheral edema (Choice D) is a manifestation of fluid retention in the body but is less indicative of acute pulmonary distress compared to shortness of breath.

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