Nursing Elites

1. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with jaundice and ascites. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. Peripheral edema
• B. Confusion and altered mental status
• C. Yellowing of the skin
• D. Increased abdominal girth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Confusion and altered mental status are the most critical assessment findings in a client with cirrhosis. These symptoms may indicate hepatic encephalopathy, a serious complication that requires immediate intervention. Yellowing of the skin (jaundice) is a common manifestation of cirrhosis and does not necessitate immediate intervention. Peripheral edema and increased abdominal girth are associated with fluid retention in cirrhosis but are not as urgent as addressing altered mental status and confusion.

2. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which laboratory value should be monitored closely?

• A. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L
• B. Serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L
• C. Serum creatinine of 1.8 mg/dl
• D. Serum glucose of 200 mg/dl

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with left-sided heart failure, monitoring serum creatinine is crucial to evaluate kidney function and fluid balance. Elevated creatinine levels can indicate impaired kidney function, which is common in heart failure due to decreased cardiac output and renal perfusion. Serum sodium levels (choice A) are important but are more closely associated with fluid balance and heart failure exacerbation. Serum potassium (choice B) is also important to monitor, but it is more closely linked to cardiac arrhythmias rather than kidney function. Serum glucose levels (choice D) are significant but are not the priority for monitoring in left-sided heart failure.

3. While a child is hospitalized with acute glomerulonephritis, the parents ask why blood pressure readings are taken so often. Which response by the nurse is most accurate?

• A. Elevated blood pressure must be anticipated and identified quickly
• B. Frequent monitoring helps ensure the medication is effective
• C. It is standard protocol for all hospitalized children
• D. We need to monitor for any potential kidney damage

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Elevated blood pressure must be anticipated and identified quickly.' Acute glomerulonephritis can lead to significant hypertension, making it crucial to monitor blood pressure frequently to promptly identify any elevation. Choice B is incorrect because while monitoring can help assess medication effectiveness, the primary reason for frequent blood pressure checks in this case is to detect elevated blood pressure. Choice C is incorrect as not all hospitalized children require such frequent blood pressure monitoring. Choice D is incorrect as the primary reason for monitoring blood pressure is to detect hypertension, rather than solely focusing on potential kidney damage.

4. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value is most concerning?

• A. INR of 3.0
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 15 seconds
• C. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dl
• D. White blood cell count

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 3.0 is most concerning in a client prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) as it indicates a high risk of bleeding, requiring immediate intervention. A high INR value suggests that the blood is taking longer to clot, putting the patient at an increased risk of hemorrhage. Prothrombin time (PT) measures how long it takes for blood to clot, but the specific value of 15 seconds is within the normal range. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dl indicates mild anemia and does not directly relate to the risk of bleeding associated with warfarin therapy. White blood cell count assesses immune function and infection risk, but it is not directly related to the anticoagulant effects of warfarin.

5. A client's subjective data includes dysuria, urgency, and urinary frequency. What action should the nurse implement next?

• A. Collect a clean-catch specimen
• B. Administer prescribed antibiotics
• C. Perform a bladder scan
• D. Increase the client's fluid intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement next is to collect a clean-catch specimen. This is essential to diagnose the cause of the client's symptoms accurately before initiating any treatment. Administering antibiotics (Choice B) without confirming the diagnosis through a specimen collection can be inappropriate and potentially harmful. Performing a bladder scan (Choice C) may not provide the necessary information to identify the specific cause of the symptoms. Increasing the client's fluid intake (Choice D) is a general recommendation and may not address the underlying issue causing the symptoms.

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