Nursing Elites

1. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with ascites and jaundice. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Peripheral edema
• B. Confusion and altered mental status
• C. Increased abdominal girth
• D. Yellowing of the skin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Confusion and altered mental status are concerning signs of hepatic encephalopathy in a client with cirrhosis. Hepatic encephalopathy is a serious complication of liver disease that requires immediate intervention. Peripheral edema may be present due to fluid accumulation, increased abdominal girth can indicate ascites which is common in cirrhosis, and yellowing of the skin is a typical manifestation of jaundice in liver dysfunction, all of which are important but not as immediately concerning as signs of hepatic encephalopathy.

2. A male client is having abdominal pain after a left femoral angioplasty and stent, and is asking for additional pain medication for right lower quadrant pain (9/10). Two hours ago, he received hydrocodone/acetaminophen 7.5/325 mg. His vital signs are elevated from previous readings: temperature 97.8°F, heart rate 102 beats/minute, respiration 20 breaths/minute. His abdomen is swollen, the groin access site is tender, peripheral pulses are present, but the left is greater than the right. What data is needed to make this report complete?

• A. Client's lungs are clear bilaterally, and oxygen saturation is 97%.
• B. Surgeon needs to see the client immediately to evaluate the situation.
• C. Left peripheral pulses were present only by Doppler pre-procedure.
• D. Client's history includes multiple back surgeries and chronic pain.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. In this scenario, the client is experiencing abdominal pain after a left femoral angioplasty and stent, with signs of potential complications such as a swollen abdomen, tenderness at the groin access site, and unequal peripheral pulses. The client's vital signs are also elevated, indicating a worsening condition. Given these findings, the immediate evaluation by the surgeon is crucial to assess for serious complications like internal bleeding or ischemia. Choice A is incorrect as the focus should be on the urgent need for surgical evaluation rather than lung sounds and oxygen saturation. Choice C is irrelevant to the immediate management of the client's current situation. Choice D, while providing background information, is not essential for the urgent intervention required in this case.

3. A 10-year-old who has terminal brain cancer asks the nurse, 'What will happen to my body when I die?' How should the nurse respond?

• A. Your mother and father will be here soon. Talk to them about that.'
• B. Why do you want to know about what will happen to your body when you die?'
• C. The heart will stop beating and you will stop breathing.'
• D. Are you concerned about where your spirit will go?'

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response when a terminally ill child asks about what will happen to their body when they die is to provide a truthful and straightforward answer. Choice C, 'The heart will stop beating and you will stop breathing,' is the best response because it offers a simple and honest explanation without delving into spiritual or emotional aspects that may be confusing or distressing to the child. Choices A and D deflect the question and do not address the child's inquiry directly. Choice B, 'Why do you want to know about what will happen to your body when you die?' may come across as dismissive or evasive, rather than providing the clear information the child is seeking.

4. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is admitted with hyperkalemia. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer intravenous calcium gluconate.
• B. Administer intravenous insulin and glucose.
• C. Administer intravenous sodium bicarbonate.
• D. Administer a loop diuretic as prescribed.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer intravenous insulin and glucose. In the presence of hyperkalemia, the priority intervention is to shift potassium back into the cells to lower serum levels. Insulin, in combination with glucose, helps drive potassium intracellularly. Administering calcium gluconate (choice A) is used to stabilize myocardial cell membranes but does not address the underlying cause of hyperkalemia. Administering sodium bicarbonate (choice C) is not the initial treatment for hyperkalemia. Loop diuretics (choice D) may be used later to enhance potassium excretion but are not the primary intervention for acute hyperkalemia.

5. When organizing home visits for the day, which older client should the home health nurse plan to visit first?

• A. A woman who takes naproxen (Naprosyn) and reports a recent onset of dark, tarry stools.
• B. A man who receives weekly injections of epoetin (Procrit) for a low serum iron level.
• C. A man with emphysema who smokes and is complaining of white patches in his mouth.
• D. A frail woman with heart failure who reported a 2-pound weight gain in the last week.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Dark, tarry stools may indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, a potentially life-threatening condition that requires immediate attention. Visiting this client first is crucial for prompt assessment and intervention. Choices B, C, and D do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent attention compared to the potential emergency indicated by dark, tarry stools.

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