Nursing Elites

1. In a client with chronic renal failure receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen, Procrit), which laboratory result would indicate a therapeutic effect of the medication?

• A. Hematocrit of 32%
• B. Platelet count of 400,000 cells/mm³
• C. White blood cell count of 6000 cells/mm³
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level of 15 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A hematocrit of 32% indicates a therapeutic effect of epoetin alfa in a client with chronic renal failure. Epoetin alfa is used to treat anemia in these patients by stimulating red blood cell production, leading to an increase in the hematocrit level. Monitoring the hematocrit is essential to assess the response to epoetin alfa therapy.

2. A client is receiving bethanechol chloride (Urecholine). The nurse monitors the client for adverse effects of the medication and should observe for which of the following?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Constipation
• C. Hypertension
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) stimulates muscarinic receptors, which can lead to bradycardia as an adverse effect. Monitoring for bradycardia is crucial when administering this medication. Constipation, hypertension, and dry mouth are not typically associated with the effects of bethanechol chloride. Bradycardia is the correct adverse effect to monitor for, making option A the correct answer. Constipation, hypertension, and dry mouth are not commonly seen with bethanechol chloride and are therefore incorrect choices.

3. When monitoring a client for acute toxicity associated with bethanechol chloride (Urecholine), what sign should the nurse check for to indicate toxicity?

• A. Dry skin
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Signs of dehydration

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bradycardia. Toxicity from bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) can lead to excessive muscarinic stimulation, resulting in manifestations like salivation, sweating, involuntary urination and defecation, bradycardia, and severe hypotension. When facing toxicity, treatment involves supportive measures and administering atropine sulfate subcutaneously or intravenously.

4. A client is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the medication?

• A. I should brush and floss my teeth regularly.
• B. I should take the medication with antacids.
• C. I can stop taking the medication once my seizures are controlled.
• D. I should avoid drinking milk while taking this medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement is 'I should brush and floss my teeth regularly.' Phenytoin (Dilantin) can cause gingival hyperplasia, so maintaining good oral hygiene is essential. Taking the medication with antacids can affect its absorption, so it should not be done. It is crucial not to stop taking the medication abruptly, even if seizures are controlled. There is no specific requirement to avoid milk while taking phenytoin (Dilantin).

5. A client with trigeminal neuralgia tells the nurse that acetaminophen (Tylenol) is taken on a frequent daily basis for relief of generalized discomfort. The nurse reviews the client's laboratory results and determines that which of the following indicates toxicity associated with the medication?

• A. Sodium of 140 mEq/L
• B. Prothrombin time of 12 seconds
• C. Platelet count of 400,000 cells/mm³
• D. A direct bilirubin level of 2 mg/dL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A direct bilirubin level of 2 mg/dL indicates liver damage, which can be caused by an overdose of acetaminophen. Acetaminophen toxicity can lead to liver injury, manifesting as elevated bilirubin levels and other liver function test abnormalities.

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