Nursing Elites

1. In a client with chronic renal failure receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen, Procrit), which laboratory result would indicate a therapeutic effect of the medication?

• A. Hematocrit of 32%
• B. Platelet count of 400,000 cells/mm³
• C. White blood cell count of 6000 cells/mm³
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level of 15 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A hematocrit of 32% indicates a therapeutic effect of epoetin alfa in a client with chronic renal failure. Epoetin alfa is used to treat anemia in these patients by stimulating red blood cell production, leading to an increase in the hematocrit level. Monitoring the hematocrit is essential to assess the response to epoetin alfa therapy.

2. The healthcare provider should anticipate that the most likely medication to be prescribed prophylactically for a child with spina bifida (myelomeningocele) who has a neurogenic bladder would be:

• A. Prednisone
• B. Sulfisoxazole
• C. Furosemide (Lasix)
• D. Intravenous immune globulin (IVIG)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Children with spina bifida, especially those with a neurogenic bladder, are at an increased risk of urinary tract infections. Sulfisoxazole, an antibiotic, is commonly prescribed prophylactically to prevent UTIs in this population. Prednisone (Choice A) is a corticosteroid and is not typically used for prophylaxis in this scenario. Furosemide (Lasix) (Choice C) is a diuretic used to treat fluid retention and hypertension, not for preventing UTIs. Intravenous immune globulin (IVIG) (Choice D) is used to boost the immune system, not for UTI prophylaxis in this case.

3. A client is prescribed amlodipine (Norvasc) for hypertension. Which side effect should the nurse instruct the client to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Dizziness
• B. Constipation
• C. Peripheral edema
• D. Dry cough

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Peripheral edema.' Amlodipine (Norvasc) can cause peripheral edema, which is an accumulation of fluid in the extremities and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Dizziness and constipation are possible side effects of amlodipine but are generally less concerning. Dry cough is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors, not calcium channel blockers like amlodipine.

4. A client with a peptic ulcer is diagnosed with a Helicobacter pylori infection. The nurse is reinforcing teaching for the client about the medications prescribed, including clarithromycin (Biaxin), esomeprazole (Nexium), and amoxicillin (Amoxil). Which statement by the client indicates the best understanding of the medication regimen?

• A. My ulcer will heal because these medications will kill the bacteria.
• B. These medications are only taken when I have pain from my ulcer.
• C. The medications will kill the bacteria and stop the acid production.
• D. These medications will coat the ulcer and decrease the acid production in my stomach.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Triple therapy for Helicobacter pylori infection usually includes two antibacterial drugs and a proton pump inhibitor. These medications will kill the bacteria and decrease acid production.

5. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer a prescribed dose of digoxin (Lanoxin) to a client. Before administering the medication, the healthcare provider should:

• A. Measure the client's blood pressure.
• B. Check the client's heart rate.
• C. Assess the client's respiratory rate.
• D. Check the client's oxygen saturation level.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before administering digoxin (Lanoxin), the healthcare provider should check the client's heart rate. Monitoring the heart rate is crucial because if it is below 60 beats per minute, the medication should be withheld, and the healthcare provider must be informed. While blood pressure, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturation are essential assessments, they are not the primary focus before administering digoxin.

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