Nursing Elites

1. In a client with chronic renal failure receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen, Procrit), which laboratory result would indicate a therapeutic effect of the medication?

• A. Hematocrit of 32%
• B. Platelet count of 400,000 cells/mm³
• C. White blood cell count of 6000 cells/mm³
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level of 15 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A hematocrit of 32% indicates a therapeutic effect of epoetin alfa in a client with chronic renal failure. Epoetin alfa is used to treat anemia in these patients by stimulating red blood cell production, leading to an increase in the hematocrit level. Monitoring the hematocrit is essential to assess the response to epoetin alfa therapy.

2. When administering etanercept (Enbrel) to a client with rheumatoid arthritis for 3 weeks, what is the most important assessment for the nurse to perform?

• A. Assessing the injection site for itching and edema
• B. Monitoring white blood cell counts and platelet counts
• C. Evaluating for fatigue and joint pain in the client
• D. Checking for a metallic taste in the mouth and loss of appetite

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority when administering etanercept (Enbrel) to a client with rheumatoid arthritis is to monitor white blood cell counts and platelet counts. Etanercept can lead to infections and pancytopenia, making it crucial to assess for changes in these blood parameters to detect any potential complications early on.

3. A nurse is providing instructions to an adolescent who has a history of seizures and is taking an anticonvulsant medication. Which of the following statements indicates that the client understands the instructions?

• A. I will never be able to drive a car.
• B. My anticonvulsant medication will clear up my skin.
• C. I can't drink alcohol while I am taking my medication.
• D. If I forget my morning medication, I can take two pills at bedtime.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'I can't drink alcohol while I am taking my medication.' Alcohol can lower the seizure threshold and should be avoided by individuals taking anticonvulsants. Choice A is incorrect because it is an extreme statement and not necessary for someone taking anticonvulsants. Choice B is incorrect as anticonvulsant medications are not used to clear skin conditions. Choice D is incorrect because doubling up medication doses can be harmful and should not be done without healthcare provider approval.

4. Why is prostaglandin E1 prescribed for a child with transposition of the great arteries?

• A. Prevents hypercyanotic (blue or tet) spells
• B. Maintains an adequate hormone level
• C. Maintains the position of the great arteries
• D. Provides adequate oxygen saturation and maintains cardiac output

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Prostaglandin E1 is prescribed for a child with transposition of the great arteries to increase blood mixing, which helps maintain adequate oxygen saturation and cardiac output. This medication does not prevent hypercyanotic spells, maintain hormone levels, or influence the position of the great arteries.

5. Rifabutin (Mycobutin) is prescribed for a client with active Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) disease and tuberculosis. The nurse monitors for which side effects of the medication? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Signs of hepatitis
• B. Flu-like syndrome
• C. Low neutrophil count
• D. Vitamin B6 deficiency

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Rifabutin is known to cause side effects such as hepatitis, flu-like syndrome, low neutrophil count, and ocular pain or blurred vision. Vitamin B6 deficiency is not associated with rifabutin but is a side effect of isoniazid (INH). Therefore, the nurse should not monitor for Vitamin B6 deficiency when administering rifabutin.

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