Nursing Elites

1. A client with asthma is experiencing wheezing. What is the nurse’s priority intervention?

• A. Administer a bronchodilator immediately.
• B. Increase the client's oxygen flow rate.
• C. Perform a chest x-ray to assess lung function.
• D. Place the client in a high Fowler’s position.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer a bronchodilator immediately. Wheezing in a client with asthma indicates bronchoconstriction, which can compromise airflow. Administering a bronchodilator is the priority intervention as it helps to open the airways, relieve bronchoconstriction, and improve breathing. Increasing the oxygen flow rate (choice B) may be necessary but is not the priority when the airways are constricted. Performing a chest x-ray (choice C) is not the immediate action needed in this situation. Placing the client in a high Fowler's position (choice D) may provide some relief, but administering a bronchodilator to address the bronchoconstriction is the priority intervention.

2. While changing a client's chest tube dressing, the nurse notes a cracking sensation when gentle pressure is applied to the skin at the insertion site. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Apply a pressure dressing at the chest tube site.
• B. Administer an oral antihistamine per PRN order.
• C. Assess the client for allergies to topical cleaning agents.
• D. Measure the area of crackling and swelling.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Measuring the area of crackling and swelling is essential in monitoring the progression of subcutaneous emphysema, which can result from air leaking into the tissues around the chest tube insertion site. This technique helps evaluate the extent of the issue and guides further interventions. Applying a pressure dressing (choice A) might exacerbate the condition by trapping more air. Administering an oral antihistamine (choice B) is not indicated for subcutaneous emphysema. Assessing for allergies to topical cleaning agents (choice C) is not the priority in this situation compared to evaluating and managing the subcutaneous emphysema.

3. Before a client with renal failure undergoes hemodialysis, what should the nurse assess?

• A. Check the client's potassium levels
• B. Review the client's medication list
• C. Assess the client's peripheral pulses
• D. Monitor the client's urine output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to check the client's potassium levels. Potassium levels are crucial to assess before hemodialysis in a client with renal failure because hyperkalemia (high potassium) is a common complication in these patients. Hemodialysis aims to remove excess potassium from the blood, making it essential to monitor potassium levels to determine the need for appropriate interventions. Reviewing the client's medication list (Choice B) is important for overall care but is not as directly relevant to the immediate concerns before hemodialysis. Assessing peripheral pulses (Choice C) and monitoring urine output (Choice D) are important aspects of nursing assessment but are not as directly related to the specific preparation needed before hemodialysis in a client with renal failure.

4. A client with cirrhosis is prescribed spironolactone to manage ascites. Which serum laboratory value is most important for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Sodium
• B. Calcium
• C. Magnesium
• D. Potassium

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Potassium. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to hyperkalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels are not directly affected by spironolactone use for managing ascites in cirrhosis.

5. The client provides three positive responses to the CAGE questionnaire. Which interpretation should the nurse provide?

• A. The CAGE is a tool for identifying substance abuse.
• B. Two positive responses suggest alcohol dependence.
• C. One positive response indicates potential alcohol issues.
• D. All responses must be positive for alcohol dependence.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The CAGE questionnaire is a widely used screening tool for alcohol dependence. Two or more positive responses suggest a higher likelihood of alcohol dependence. One positive response may indicate potential alcohol issues, but two or more significantly increase the likelihood of dependence. Therefore, choice B is the most appropriate interpretation. Choice A is incorrect because the CAGE questionnaire specifically focuses on alcohol-related issues, not substance abuse in general. Choice C is incorrect as one positive response does not indicate addiction but rather raises a concern. Choice D is incorrect as not all responses need to be positive to suggest alcohol dependence.

Similar Questions