HESI RN
RN HESI Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client with asthma is experiencing wheezing. What is the nurse’s priority intervention?
- A. Administer a bronchodilator immediately.
- B. Increase the client's oxygen flow rate.
- C. Perform a chest x-ray to assess lung function.
- D. Place the client in a high Fowler’s position.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer a bronchodilator immediately. Wheezing in a client with asthma indicates bronchoconstriction, which can compromise airflow. Administering a bronchodilator is the priority intervention as it helps to open the airways, relieve bronchoconstriction, and improve breathing. Increasing the oxygen flow rate (choice B) may be necessary but is not the priority when the airways are constricted. Performing a chest x-ray (choice C) is not the immediate action needed in this situation. Placing the client in a high Fowler's position (choice D) may provide some relief, but administering a bronchodilator to address the bronchoconstriction is the priority intervention.
2. An older adult client with chronic emphysema is admitted with acute onset of weakness, palpitation, and vomiting. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain during the initial interview?
- A. Medication compliance over the past few weeks.
- B. Recent sleep patterns and rest.
- C. Recent history of smoking.
- D. Activity level prior to symptom onset.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Medication compliance over the past few weeks. In a client with chronic emphysema experiencing acute symptoms, it is crucial to assess medication compliance as it directly impacts symptom control and disease management. Ensuring the client has been adherent to their prescribed medications can provide insights into potential exacerbating factors or the need for adjustments in the treatment plan. Choices B, C, and D are less critical during the initial assessment compared to medication compliance. Recent sleep patterns and rest (choice B) may be relevant but are secondary to ensuring proper medication management. While smoking history (choice C) is important in chronic lung conditions, the immediate focus should be on the current status of medication use. Activity level prior to symptom onset (choice D) is also pertinent but not as crucial as confirming medication compliance to address the acute symptoms.
3. A client receiving lactulose for hepatic encephalopathy needs evaluation. Which assessment should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Percussion of the abdomen.
- B. Blood glucose level.
- C. Serum electrolytes.
- D. Level of consciousness.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Level of consciousness. When managing hepatic encephalopathy with lactulose, monitoring the client's level of consciousness is crucial as it is a key indicator of the therapeutic response to lactulose in reducing ammonia levels. Changes in consciousness can reflect the effectiveness of treatment and the progression of hepatic encephalopathy. Option A, percussion of the abdomen, is not directly related to evaluating the response to lactulose. Option B, blood glucose level, is important but not the priority in this context. Option C, serum electrolytes, while significant in liver disease, do not directly assess the impact of lactulose therapy on hepatic encephalopathy.
4. A client with heart failure is experiencing shortness of breath and swelling in the legs. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Administer prescribed diuretics
- B. Place the client in a supine position
- C. Restrict fluid intake immediately
- D. Increase the client's sodium intake
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer prescribed diuretics. Diuretics are prescribed to reduce fluid overload in clients with heart failure. By promoting urine output, diuretics help alleviate symptoms like shortness of breath and swelling. While placing the client in a supine position can help with breathing and fluid redistribution, administering diuretics takes precedence as it directly addresses fluid overload. Restricting fluid intake immediately may be necessary in some cases, but the immediate priority is to administer diuretics. Increasing the client's sodium intake would worsen fluid retention and is contraindicated in heart failure.
5. A client has been receiving hydromorphone every six hours for four days. What assessment should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Increase the dosage of the medication.
- B. Auscultate bowel sounds.
- C. Monitor the client's blood pressure.
- D. Check the client's respiratory rate.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Hydromorphone can cause constipation, a common side effect of opioids. Therefore, it is crucial to auscultate bowel sounds to monitor for signs of decreased gastrointestinal motility. Monitoring blood pressure (choice C) and respiratory rate (choice D) are important but not the priority in this scenario as constipation is a common issue with opioid use. Increasing the dosage of the medication (choice A) is not appropriate without assessing the client's bowel function first.
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