Nursing Elites

1. A client is experiencing chest pain and is prescribed nitroglycerin. What should the nurse assess before administering the medication?

• A. Monitor the client’s oxygen saturation level.
• B. Check the client’s heart rate and blood pressure.
• C. Evaluate the client’s level of consciousness.
• D. Assess the client's chest pain severity using a pain scale.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before administering nitroglycerin, it is crucial to check the client’s heart rate and blood pressure. Nitroglycerin can lower blood pressure and heart rate, so assessing these parameters is essential to prevent exacerbating hypotension or bradycardia. While monitoring the client’s oxygen saturation level is important in some situations, it is not the primary assessment needed before administering nitroglycerin. Evaluating the client’s level of consciousness is relevant for other conditions but not specifically necessary before giving nitroglycerin. Assessing chest pain severity using a pain scale is valuable for pain management but is not the priority assessment before administering nitroglycerin.

2. After working with a very demanding client, an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) tells the nurse, 'I have had it with that client. I just can't do anything that pleases him. I'm not going in there again.' The nurse should respond by saying

• A. He has a lot of problems. You need to have patience with him.
• B. I will talk with him and try to figure out what to do.
• C. He is scared and taking it out on you. Let's talk to figure out what to do.
• D. Ignore him and get the rest of your work done. Someone else can take care of him for the rest of the day.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to acknowledge the UAP's feelings while exploring the client's behavior. By stating, 'He is scared and taking it out on you. Let's talk to figure out what to do,' the nurse shows empathy and readiness to address the situation collaboratively. This approach helps maintain a therapeutic environment for both the UAP and the client. Choices A and D are dismissive and do not address the underlying issue or provide support. Choice B, while showing willingness to intervene, lacks the understanding of the client's potential fear and does not address the UAP's feelings.

3. A 5-week-old infant who developed projectile vomiting over the last two weeks is diagnosed with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. Which intervention should the nurse plan to implement?

• A. Instruct the mother to give the child sugar water only.
• B. Offer oral rehydration solution every 2 hours.
• C. Provide Pedialyte feedings via nasogastric tube.
• D. Maintain intravenous fluid therapy per prescription.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for a 5-week-old infant diagnosed with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis and experiencing projectile vomiting is to maintain intravenous fluid therapy. Intravenous fluids are crucial for rehydrating an infant suffering from dehydration due to rapid fluid loss from vomiting. Instructing the mother to provide sugar water only (choice A) is inappropriate and insufficient for rehydration. Offering oral rehydration solution every 2 hours (choice B) may not be effective if the infant continues to vomit. Providing Pedialyte feedings via nasogastric tube (choice C) may also not be as effective as intravenous fluid therapy in rapidly replenishing fluids and stabilizing the child's condition.

4. A client is receiving IV antibiotic therapy for sepsis. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is improving?

• A. Urine output increases to 25 mL/hour
• B. Client reports feeling less fatigued
• C. Heart rate decreases from 120 to 110 beats per minute
• D. White blood cell count decreases from 15,000 to 9,000/mm3

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A decrease in white blood cell count indicates that the infection is responding to treatment, making this the most objective indicator of improvement in a client with sepsis. Choices A, B, and C are subjective indicators and may not always directly correlate with the resolution of the underlying infection. While an increase in urine output, a client reporting feeling less fatigued, and a decrease in heart rate are positive signs, they are not as specific or directly related to the resolution of the infection as a decrease in white blood cell count.

5. A client with peripheral artery disease reports leg cramps while walking. What intervention should the nurse recommend?

• A. Encourage the client to rest immediately when cramping occurs.
• B. Recommend that the client increase their intake of potassium-rich foods.
• C. Advise the client to take a short break, then continue walking.
• D. Recommend that the client avoid walking altogether to prevent cramps.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: For clients with peripheral artery disease, advising the client to take a short break when leg cramps occur and then continue walking is the appropriate intervention. This approach, known as interval walking, helps manage pain from intermittent claudication and improves circulation over time. Choice A is incorrect because immediate rest may not be necessary, and encouraging the client to resume walking after a short break is more beneficial. Choice B is incorrect since increasing potassium-rich foods may not directly address the underlying issue of peripheral artery disease causing cramps. Choice D is incorrect as avoiding walking altogether can lead to further deconditioning and worsen symptoms over time.

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