Nursing Elites

1. A client is experiencing chest pain and is prescribed nitroglycerin. What should the nurse assess before administering the medication?

• A. Monitor the client’s oxygen saturation level.
• B. Check the client’s heart rate and blood pressure.
• C. Evaluate the client’s level of consciousness.
• D. Assess the client's chest pain severity using a pain scale.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Before administering nitroglycerin, it is crucial to check the client’s heart rate and blood pressure. Nitroglycerin can lower blood pressure and heart rate, so assessing these parameters is essential to prevent exacerbating hypotension or bradycardia. While monitoring the client’s oxygen saturation level is important in some situations, it is not the primary assessment needed before administering nitroglycerin. Evaluating the client’s level of consciousness is relevant for other conditions but not specifically necessary before giving nitroglycerin. Assessing chest pain severity using a pain scale is valuable for pain management but is not the priority assessment before administering nitroglycerin.

2. A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. What side effect should the nurse teach the client to monitor for?

• A. Monitor for a persistent cough.
• B. Monitor for bradycardia and dizziness.
• C. Report any signs of swelling or difficulty breathing.
• D. Monitor for headache and blurred vision.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Monitor for a persistent cough.' Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, is associated with a common side effect of a persistent dry cough. This cough can be bothersome to the client and should be reported to their healthcare provider. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because bradycardia, dizziness, swelling, difficulty breathing, headache, and blurred vision are not typically associated with lisinopril use.

3. An older adult client with chronic emphysema is admitted to the emergency room with acute weakness, palpitations, and vomiting. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain during the initial interview?

• A. Recent compliance with prescribed medications.
• B. Sleep patterns during the previous few weeks.
• C. History of smoking over the past 6 months.
• D. Activity level prior to the onset of symptoms.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Recent compliance with prescribed medications. In a client with chronic emphysema experiencing acute symptoms, it is crucial to assess medication compliance as it directly impacts the management of the condition and could contribute to the current presentation. Ensuring that the client has been taking their prescribed medications can provide vital information to guide further treatment. Choices B, C, and D, although important in a comprehensive assessment, are not as immediately crucial as assessing medication compliance in this emergency situation.

4. A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin and reports nausea. What is the nurse's first action?

• A. Administer an anti-nausea medication as prescribed.
• B. Assess the client's digoxin level immediately.
• C. Assess the client’s apical pulse and hold the next dose if it's below 60 bpm.
• D. Instruct the client to reduce their fluid intake.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client on digoxin reports nausea, it can be a sign of digoxin toxicity. The priority action for the nurse is to assess the client's digoxin level immediately. This assessment will help determine if the nausea is related to digoxin toxicity, requiring a dosage adjustment. Administering an anti-nausea medication (Choice A) does not address the underlying issue of potential digoxin toxicity. Assessing the client's apical pulse (Choice C) is important in general digoxin monitoring but not the first action when nausea is reported. Instructing the client to reduce fluid intake (Choice D) is not the initial response to nausea in a client taking digoxin.

5. A client is scheduled for surgery in the morning and is NPO. Which statement indicates that the client understands the reason for being NPO?

• A. Being NPO helps reduce the risk of nausea.
• B. I should not eat or drink anything to prevent complications during surgery.
• C. NPO reduces the risk of aspiration during surgery.
• D. NPO helps ensure the stomach is empty during surgery.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'NPO reduces the risk of aspiration during surgery.' When a client is NPO (nothing by mouth) before surgery, it is to prevent aspiration, which can lead to serious complications such as pneumonia. Choice A is incorrect because being NPO is more about preventing aspiration than nausea. Choice B is a general statement without specifying the reason for being NPO. Choice D is partially correct but does not emphasize the crucial aspect of preventing aspiration, which is the primary reason for fasting before surgery.

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