HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. What instruction should the nurse include for a client prescribed nitroglycerin for a myocardial infarction?
- A. Take the medication only when experiencing severe chest pain.
- B. Store the medication in a dark container to protect it from light.
- C. Take the medication before engaging in physical activity that may trigger chest pain.
- D. Limit nitroglycerin use to no more than three doses in 15 minutes.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Limit nitroglycerin use to no more than three doses in 15 minutes.' This instruction is crucial to prevent excessive use, which can lead to severe hypotension and other complications. Choice A is incorrect because nitroglycerin should also be used preventatively, not only during severe chest pain. Choice B is irrelevant and not a necessary instruction for nitroglycerin use. Choice C is incorrect as nitroglycerin is typically taken to prevent chest pain rather than waiting for an activity that may trigger it.
2. The nurse has been teaching a client with congestive heart failure about proper nutrition. The selection of which lunch indicates the client has learned about sodium restriction?
- A. Cheese sandwich with a glass of 2% milk
- B. Sliced turkey sandwich and canned pineapple
- C. Cheeseburger and baked potato
- D. Mushroom pizza and ice cream
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A sliced turkey sandwich and canned pineapple are good choices for a client with congestive heart failure who is learning about sodium restriction. Turkey is generally lower in sodium compared to cheese, and canned fruits like pineapple typically have lower sodium content. Choices A, C, and D are less suitable as they contain higher levels of sodium, such as cheese, cheeseburger, baked potato, mushroom pizza, and ice cream, which are not ideal for a client needing to restrict sodium intake.
3. A client with adrenal crisis has a temperature of 102°F, heart rate of 138 bpm, and blood pressure of 80/60 mmHg. Which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Obtain an analgesic prescription.
- B. Infuse intravenous fluid bolus.
- C. Administer PRN oral antipyretic.
- D. Cover the client with a cooling blanket.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a client with adrenal crisis presenting with a high temperature, tachycardia, and hypotension, the priority action for the nurse to implement first is to infuse an intravenous fluid bolus. This intervention aims to address the hypotension by increasing the circulating volume and improving perfusion. Obtaining an analgesic prescription (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation. Administering an oral antipyretic (Choice C) may help reduce the fever but does not address the primary issue of hypotension. Covering the client with a cooling blanket (Choice D) may help with temperature control but does not address the hemodynamic instability caused by the adrenal crisis.
4. A client admitted with left-sided heart failure presents with shortness of breath and pink frothy sputum. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Decreased breath sounds bilaterally.
- B. Heart rate of 110 bpm and irregular rhythm.
- C. Pink frothy sputum and increased respiratory rate.
- D. Elevated blood pressure and shortness of breath.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: Pink frothy sputum and increased respiratory rate. Pink frothy sputum is a sign of pulmonary edema, indicating fluid in the lungs, a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention to prevent respiratory failure. Increased respiratory rate is also concerning as it indicates the body's effort to compensate for the decreased oxygenation. Options A, B, and D are not the most critical findings in this situation. Decreased breath sounds bilaterally may indicate a pneumothorax or atelectasis, heart rate of 110 bpm and irregular rhythm can be managed with medications and further assessment, and elevated blood pressure with shortness of breath is not as urgent as pink frothy sputum and increased respiratory rate.
5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) presents with a respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute and an oxygen saturation of 86%. What is the nurse's first action?
- A. Administer oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
- C. Position the client in high Fowler's position.
- D. Suction the client's airway.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula is the nurse's first action when a client with COPD presents with a respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute and an oxygen saturation of 86%. Oxygen therapy helps improve oxygen saturation in patients with COPD and respiratory distress. While notifying the healthcare provider is important, immediate intervention to improve oxygenation takes priority. Positioning the client in high Fowler's position can also assist with breathing but is not the initial action in this scenario. Suctioning the airway is not indicated unless there are secretions obstructing the airway, which is not mentioned in the scenario.
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