Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which clinical finding is most concerning?

• A. Headache
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 15 seconds
• C. Elevated liver enzymes
• D. Peripheral edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Headache. In a client with atrial fibrillation taking warfarin (Coumadin), a headache can be indicative of bleeding, which is a serious complication requiring immediate assessment and intervention. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is crucial when on anticoagulant therapy. Choices B, C, and D are not the most concerning. A prothrombin time of 15 seconds is within the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, elevated liver enzymes may indicate liver dysfunction but are not directly related to the medication's side effects, and peripheral edema is not typically associated with warfarin use or atrial fibrillation in this context.

2. During the infusion of a second unit of packed red blood cells, the client's temperature increases from 99 to 101.6 F. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Stop the transfusion and start a saline infusion.
• B. Administer antipyretics and continue the transfusion.
• C. Monitor the client’s vital signs every 15 minutes.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider and continue the transfusion.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An increase in temperature during a transfusion may indicate a transfusion reaction, which can be serious. Stopping the transfusion and starting a saline infusion is the priority action to prevent further complications and address the potential adverse reaction. Administering antipyretics (choice B) may mask the symptoms of a transfusion reaction, delaying appropriate treatment. While monitoring vital signs (choice C) is important, stopping the transfusion takes precedence to prevent harm. Notifying the healthcare provider (choice D) is essential but should not delay the immediate intervention of stopping the transfusion and starting a saline infusion.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. Which laboratory value should be monitored closely?

• A. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L
• B. Serum potassium of 4.5 mEq/L
• C. Serum creatinine of 1.8 mg/dl
• D. Serum glucose of 200 mg/dl

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with left-sided heart failure, monitoring serum creatinine is crucial to evaluate kidney function and fluid balance. Elevated creatinine levels can indicate impaired kidney function, which is common in heart failure due to decreased cardiac output and renal perfusion. Serum sodium levels (choice A) are important but are more closely associated with fluid balance and heart failure exacerbation. Serum potassium (choice B) is also important to monitor, but it is more closely linked to cardiac arrhythmias rather than kidney function. Serum glucose levels (choice D) are significant but are not the priority for monitoring in left-sided heart failure.

4. Before preparing a client for the first surgical case of the day, a part-time scrub nurse asks the circulating nurse if a 3-minute surgical hand scrub is adequate preparation for this client. Which response should the circulating nurse provide?

• A. Ask a more experienced nurse to perform that scrub since it is the first time of the day
• B. Validate the nurse is implementing the OR policy for surgical hand scrub
• C. Inform the nurse that hand scrubs should be 3 minutes between cases.
• D. Direct the nurse to continue the surgical hand scrub for a 5-minute duration.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to direct the nurse to continue the surgical hand scrub for a 5-minute duration. Surgical hand scrubs should last for 5 to 10 minutes, ensuring thorough cleaning and disinfection. Choice A is incorrect because the nurse should be guided to complete the scrub properly rather than having someone else do it. Choice B is incorrect as it does not address the duration of the hand scrub. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests a 3-minute hand scrub is sufficient, which is inadequate for proper preparation before surgery.

5. The nurse enters a client's room and observes the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) making an occupied bed. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Place the side rails in an up position.
• B. Assist the UAP in turning the client.
• C. Provide instructions on proper bed-making techniques.
• D. Ask the client if they are comfortable.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to place the side rails in an up position first. This action is essential to prevent the client from falling while the bed is being made. Assisting the UAP in turning the client (Choice B) is not the immediate priority. Providing instructions on bed-making techniques (Choice C) can wait until the safety of the client is ensured. Asking the client if they are comfortable (Choice D) is important but should come after ensuring the client's safety by raising the side rails.

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