HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam
1. A client with a history of angina pectoris is prescribed sublingual nitroglycerin. Which client statement indicates that further teaching is needed?
- A. ‘I should take the nitroglycerin with a full glass of water.’
- B. ‘I should take the nitroglycerin as soon as I feel chest pain.’
- C. ‘I can take up to three doses of nitroglycerin if needed.’
- D. ‘I should call 911 if my chest pain does not improve after the first dose.’
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Sublingual nitroglycerin should not be taken with water, as it needs to dissolve under the tongue to be effective. Option B is correct as the client should take nitroglycerin as soon as they feel chest pain. Option C is correct as up to three doses can be taken if needed. Option D is correct as the client should seek emergency help if chest pain does not improve after the first dose.
2. An adult male who fell from a roof and fractured his left femur is admitted for surgical stabilization after having a soft cast applied in the emergency department. Which assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Weak palpable distal pulses
- B. Pain at the fracture site
- C. Mild swelling of the leg
- D. Bruising around the fracture site
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a patient with a fractured femur, weak palpable distal pulses can indicate compromised circulation to the lower extremity. This finding suggests a potential vascular compromise that requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications like compartment syndrome or ischemia. Pain at the fracture site, mild swelling of the leg, and bruising around the fracture site are expected following such an injury and surgical stabilization, and while they should be monitored, they do not require immediate intervention like addressing compromised circulation.
3. The nurse is caring for a client with a history of myocardial infarction who is complaining of chest pain. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
- B. Administer nitroglycerin sublingually as prescribed.
- C. Obtain an electrocardiogram (ECG).
- D. Assess the client's level of consciousness.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Obtaining an electrocardiogram (ECG) is the first priority in assessing for ischemia or infarction in a client with chest pain and a history of myocardial infarction. This diagnostic test provides crucial information about the heart's electrical activity and helps in identifying any acute cardiac changes. Administering oxygen therapy and nitroglycerin can be important interventions, but obtaining an ECG takes precedence as it directly assesses the client's cardiac status. Assessing the client's level of consciousness is also essential, but in this scenario, assessing for cardiac indications through an ECG is the initial step.
4. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which clinical finding is most concerning?
- A. Headache
- B. Prothrombin time (PT) of 15 seconds
- C. Elevated liver enzymes
- D. Peripheral edema
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Headache. In a client with atrial fibrillation taking warfarin (Coumadin), a headache can be indicative of bleeding, which is a serious complication requiring immediate assessment and intervention. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is crucial when on anticoagulant therapy. Choices B, C, and D are not the most concerning. A prothrombin time of 15 seconds is within the therapeutic range for a client on warfarin, elevated liver enzymes may indicate liver dysfunction but are not directly related to the medication's side effects, and peripheral edema is not typically associated with warfarin use or atrial fibrillation in this context.
5. After a third hospitalization 6 months ago, a client is admitted to the hospital with ascites and malnutrition. The client is drowsy but responding to verbal stimuli and reports recently spitting up blood. What assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
- A. Bruises on arms and legs
- B. Round and tight abdomen
- C. Pitting edema in lower legs
- D. Capillary refill of 8 seconds
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this situation, the client's capillary refill of 8 seconds is the assessment finding that warrants immediate intervention by the nurse. A capillary refill greater than 3 to 5 seconds indicates poor perfusion, which could be a sign of inadequate circulation and oxygenation. Checking capillary refill is a quick and useful way to assess peripheral perfusion. Bruises on arms and legs may indicate a bleeding disorder but are not as urgent as addressing poor perfusion. A round and tight abdomen could suggest ascites, which is already known in this case. Pitting edema in lower legs is a common finding in malnutrition and ascites but does not require immediate intervention as poor capillary refill does.
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