HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. A client with a head injury reports severe nausea. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer anti-nausea medication as prescribed.
- B. Prepare the client for a CT scan.
- C. Elevate the head of the bed and provide an emesis basin.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Severe nausea in a client with a head injury may be a sign of increased intracranial pressure. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider immediately to ensure timely intervention, as increased pressure can lead to further complications such as brain herniation. Administering anti-nausea medication or preparing for a CT scan may delay necessary treatment for the underlying cause of the nausea, which could be related to the head injury. Elevating the head of the bed and providing an emesis basin may help manage symptoms but should not be the priority over addressing the potential increase in intracranial pressure.
2. The nurse identifies an electrolyte imbalance, a weight gain of 4.4 lbs in 24 hours, and an elevated central venous pressure for a client with full-thickness burns. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer diuretics
- B. Review urine output
- C. Auscultate for irregular heart rate
- D. Increase oral fluid intake
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An elevated CVP and sudden weight gain indicate fluid overload, which can strain the heart. Auscultating for an irregular heart rate is crucial as electrolyte imbalances and fluid shifts after burns can lead to cardiac complications. Monitoring the heart rate is a priority to detect any cardiac distress early. While reviewing urine output and administering diuretics are important interventions, they should come after ensuring the client's cardiac status is stable. Increasing oral fluid intake may exacerbate the fluid overload, making it an inappropriate intervention in this scenario.
3. Which of the following statements reflects appropriate teaching to prevent injury in a client with rheumatoid arthritis?
- A. Use heat applications to relieve swelling and stiffness.
- B. Take warm showers before activity.
- C. Use cold packs to relieve joint pain.
- D. Take prescribed anti-inflammatory medications with meals.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Using cold packs to relieve joint pain is appropriate for clients with rheumatoid arthritis as cold therapy is more effective at reducing inflammation and pain in these conditions. Heat applications may exacerbate the symptoms by increasing swelling. Taking warm showers before activity may provide comfort but does not directly address joint pain or prevent injury. While anti-inflammatory medications are commonly prescribed, they are not directly related to preventing injury in clients with rheumatoid arthritis.
4. A client with diabetes mellitus is admitted with an infected foot ulcer. What intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Obtain a wound culture for testing.
- B. Administer prescribed IV antibiotics.
- C. Elevate the affected foot to reduce swelling.
- D. Consult the wound care nurse for assessment.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering prescribed IV antibiotics is the most crucial intervention in managing an infected foot ulcer in a client with diabetes mellitus. Antibiotics help combat the infection and prevent its spread systemically, which is vital in diabetic clients to prevent serious complications like sepsis. While obtaining a wound culture (Choice A) may provide valuable information for targeted antibiotic therapy, administering antibiotics promptly takes precedence to prevent the infection from worsening. Elevating the affected foot (Choice C) can help reduce swelling but is not as urgent as administering antibiotics. Consulting the wound care nurse (Choice D) may be beneficial for long-term wound management but does not address the immediate need to control the infection.
5. An older client who had a subtotal parathyroidectomy is preparing for discharge. What finding requires immediate provider notification?
- A. Afebrile with a normal pulse.
- B. No bowel movement since surgery.
- C. No appetite for breakfast.
- D. A positive Chvostek's sign.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A positive Chvostek's sign indicates hypocalcemia, a complication after parathyroid surgery that requires immediate attention. This sign is manifested by facial muscle twitching when the facial nerve in front of the ear is tapped, indicating neuromuscular irritability due to low calcium levels. Afebrile with a normal pulse (Choice A) is a normal finding and does not require immediate notification. No bowel movement since surgery (Choice B) is common postoperatively due to anesthesia effects and pain medications and usually resolves within a few days; it does not require immediate notification unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms. No appetite for breakfast (Choice C) is a common postoperative finding and does not require immediate notification unless it persists and leads to dehydration or malnutrition.
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