Nursing Elites

1. A client who recently underwent a tracheostomy is being prepared for discharge to home. Which instructions are most important for the nurse to include in the discharge plan?

• A. Teach signs of infection
• B. Teach tracheal suctioning techniques
• C. Educate on humidifying air
• D. Discuss the use of a speaking valve

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Teach tracheal suctioning techniques. Tracheal suctioning is crucial for maintaining a clear airway in clients with a tracheostomy. Without proper suctioning, secretions can accumulate and cause airway obstruction or respiratory infections. Educating the client on how to perform suctioning safely is a priority for discharge planning. Choices A, C, and D are important aspects of tracheostomy care, but teaching tracheal suctioning techniques takes precedence due to its direct impact on airway patency and preventing complications.

2. An adolescent who was diagnosed with diabetes mellitus Type 1 at the age of 9 is admitted to the hospital in diabetic ketoacidosis. Which occurrence is the most likely cause of ketoacidosis?

• A. Had a cold and ear infection for the past two days
• B. Missed a dose of insulin
• C. Did not follow dietary restrictions
• D. Overexerted during exercise

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Infections, like a cold and ear infection, increase the body's metabolic needs and insulin resistance, making diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) more likely. While missing insulin doses or not following dietary restrictions can trigger DKA, an illness is the most common precipitating factor in pediatric Type 1 diabetes. Option B is less likely as missing insulin can lead to hyperglycemia but might not be the immediate cause of ketoacidosis. Option C can contribute to DKA over time, but the acute trigger is usually an illness. Option D, overexertion during exercise, is less likely to cause DKA compared to an infection.

3. A scrub nurse preparing for the first surgery of the day asks if a 3-minute surgical hand scrub is adequate. What should the circulating nurse advise?

• A. Proceed with surgery preparation
• B. Extend scrub time to 5 minutes
• C. Use an alcohol-based hand sanitizer
• D. Scrub time depends on the type of surgery

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The circulating nurse should advise the scrub nurse to extend the hand scrub to 5 minutes for thorough preparation, especially for the first surgery of the day. Choice A is incorrect as it does not address the need for a longer scrub time. Choice C is incorrect as alcohol-based hand sanitizer is not a substitute for a thorough surgical hand scrub. Choice D is incorrect as while scrub time may vary based on the surgery, for the first surgery of the day, a longer scrub time is recommended as a standard practice.

4. An elderly client reports new-onset confusion, nausea, dysuria, and urgency. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Initiate intravenous fluids
• B. Obtain a clean-catch midstream urine specimen
• C. Administer antibiotics
• D. Start a Foley catheter to obtain a sterile sample

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take in this scenario is to obtain a clean-catch midstream urine specimen. The client's symptoms of confusion, nausea, dysuria, and urgency are suggestive of a urinary tract infection (UTI). To confirm the diagnosis and identify the causative organism, a urine specimen should be collected before initiating any treatment. Initiating intravenous fluids (Choice A) may be necessary later based on the client's condition but is not the initial priority. Administering antibiotics (Choice C) should be done after confirming the diagnosis through urine culture. Starting a Foley catheter (Choice D) to obtain a sterile sample is more invasive and should not be the first step in the assessment and management of a suspected UTI.

5. During an initial assessment, a healthcare provider notes that a client has elevated blood pressure. Which of the following findings is considered a major risk factor for coronary artery disease?

• A. Elevated HDL cholesterol
• B. Low LDL cholesterol
• C. Elevated blood pressure
• D. Low triglyceride levels

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevated blood pressure is a significant risk factor for coronary artery disease because it increases the strain on the arteries, leading to potential damage and a higher risk of developing coronary artery disease. Elevated HDL cholesterol (Choice A) is actually considered beneficial as it helps reduce the risk of heart disease. Low LDL cholesterol (Choice B) is also beneficial as high levels of LDL are associated with an increased risk of coronary artery disease. Low triglyceride levels (Choice D) are not typically considered a major risk factor for coronary artery disease.

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