HESI RN
Mental Health HESI
1. A client who has a history of bipolar disorder is recovering from a manic episode and is now experiencing depressive symptoms. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Assess the client for suicidal ideation.
- B. Provide a detailed schedule of daily activities.
- C. Discuss the importance of medication adherence.
- D. Encourage the client to engage in group therapy.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Assessing for suicidal ideation is the priority when a client with bipolar disorder is transitioning from a manic episode to a depressive phase. Suicidal ideation is a critical concern during depressive episodes, and ensuring the client's safety is the top priority. Providing a detailed schedule of daily activities (Choice B) may be helpful but is not the immediate priority over assessing for suicidal ideation. Discussing the importance of medication adherence (Choice C) and encouraging group therapy (Choice D) are essential components of care but are secondary to ensuring the client's safety in the context of potential suicidal ideation.
2. The client is preparing to discontinue the use of a sedative-hypnotic medication. Which instruction should the nurse include?
- A. “You may experience withdrawal symptoms; these are usually mild.”
- B. “The medication will need to be gradually tapered off.”
- C. “You should increase your caffeine intake to stay alert.”
- D. “There should be no change in your sleep patterns during discontinuation.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When discontinuing sedative-hypnotic medications, it is crucial to gradually taper them off to prevent withdrawal symptoms. Choice A is incorrect because withdrawal symptoms can be severe, not always mild. Choice C is incorrect as increasing caffeine intake can exacerbate sleep disturbances. Choice D is incorrect because changes in sleep patterns are expected during discontinuation of sedative-hypnotic medications.
3. A male client with schizophrenia tells the RN that he is being watched and that the television is speaking directly to him. Which response by the RN is appropriate?
- A. “The television cannot speak to you.”
- B. “That sounds very frightening for you.”
- C. “You should ignore the television.”
- D. “Why do you think the television is talking to you?”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Option B is the correct response because it acknowledges the client's feelings and demonstrates empathy. By stating that the situation sounds frightening, the RN validates the client's experience without denying or reinforcing the delusion. This approach helps build rapport and trust with the client, which is essential in therapeutic communication. Options A and C are dismissive and may invalidate the client's experience, potentially worsening the trust relationship. Option D is confrontational and may make the client defensive, hindering effective communication and rapport-building.
4. When changing the dressing for a client diagnosed with borderline personality disorder who has self-inflicted lacerations on the abdomen, which approach should the RN use?
- A. Provide detailed and thorough explanations while cleansing the wound.
- B. Perform the dressing change in a non-judgmental manner.
- C. Ask why the client cut their own abdomen in a non-threatening manner.
- D. Request assistance from another staff member for the dressing change.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct approach for the RN when changing the dressing for a client diagnosed with borderline personality disorder who has self-inflicted lacerations on the abdomen is to perform the dressing change in a non-judgmental manner. This approach helps maintain therapeutic rapport and respect for the client's situation. Choice A is incorrect because providing detailed and thorough explanations may not be as important as maintaining a non-judgmental attitude. Choice C is incorrect because asking why the client cut their own abdomen may come across as accusatory or threatening, which can be counterproductive in building trust. Choice D is incorrect because the RN should be equipped to handle the dressing change independently while ensuring a supportive and non-judgmental environment for the client.
5. The nurse accepts a transfer to the mental health unit and understands that the client is distractible and is exhibiting a decreased ability to concentrate. The nurse has only 15 minutes to talk with the client. To develop a treatment plan for this client, which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain?
- A. Motivation for treatment
- B. History of substance use
- C. Medication compliance
- D. Mental status examination
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A mental status examination is the most important assessment for the nurse to obtain in this scenario. It provides a comprehensive view of the client's current cognitive functioning, including their level of alertness, orientation, memory, attention, and thought process. Understanding the client's mental status is crucial for developing an appropriate treatment plan. The other options, such as motivation for treatment, history of substance use, and medication compliance, are important aspects to consider but may not directly address the client's current cognitive state and immediate treatment needs as effectively as a mental status examination.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access