a client who has a history of bipolar disorder is recovering from a manic episode and is now experiencing depressive symptoms which action should the
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Mental Health HESI

1. A client who has a history of bipolar disorder is recovering from a manic episode and is now experiencing depressive symptoms. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing for suicidal ideation is the priority when a client with bipolar disorder is transitioning from a manic episode to a depressive phase. Suicidal ideation is a critical concern during depressive episodes, and ensuring the client's safety is the top priority. Providing a detailed schedule of daily activities (Choice B) may be helpful but is not the immediate priority over assessing for suicidal ideation. Discussing the importance of medication adherence (Choice C) and encouraging group therapy (Choice D) are essential components of care but are secondary to ensuring the client's safety in the context of potential suicidal ideation.

2. During the admission assessment, a female client requests that her husband be allowed to stay in the room. When the RN notes a discrepancy between the client’s verbal and nonverbal communication, what action should the RN take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a client assessment, noting and documenting nonverbal messages is important as it captures the full context of the client’s communication. Nonverbal cues can often reveal underlying emotions or issues that may not be expressed verbally. Asking the client’s husband to interpret the discrepancy (Choice B) may not be appropriate as it could potentially breach the client's privacy and trust. Ignoring nonverbal behavior (Choice C) can result in missing important cues that could impact the care provided. Integrating verbal and nonverbal messages (Choice D) is beneficial, but the initial step should be to pay close attention and document the nonverbal messages to fully understand the client's communication.

3. A male client with a long history of alcohol dependency arrives in the emergency department describing the feeling of bugs crawling on his body. His BP is 170/102, pulse rate is 110 bpm, and his blood alcohol level (BAL) is 0 mg/dl. Which medication should the nurse administer?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing hallucinations and symptoms of alcohol withdrawal. Lorazepam (Ativan) is the appropriate choice as it helps manage withdrawal symptoms, including hallucinations and elevated blood pressure in alcohol-dependent clients. Haloperidol (Haldol) (Choice A) is an antipsychotic but is not the first-line treatment for alcohol withdrawal symptoms. Thiamine (Vitamin B1) (Choice B) is essential in alcohol withdrawal treatment for preventing Wernicke's encephalopathy, but in this case, addressing the acute withdrawal symptoms is the priority. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) (Choice C) is an antihistamine that may help with itching or mild anxiety but is not the preferred choice for managing alcohol withdrawal symptoms like hallucinations and elevated blood pressure.

4. After receiving treatment for anorexia, a student asks the school nurse for permission to work in the school cafeteria as part of the school’s work-study program. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients with anorexia are often fixated on food and exercise, which can exacerbate their condition. By recommending assignment to the receptionist's office, the nurse provides an environment that minimizes exposure to food-related triggers. Working in the cafeteria may intensify the student's preoccupation with food, making it an unsuitable choice. Referring the student to a psychiatrist without exploring less triggering work options first may not be necessary. Determining the parents' opinion is important, but in this context, the focus should be on selecting a work environment that supports the student's recovery.

5. An RN is providing education to the family of a client diagnosed with schizophrenia who is being treated with clozapine (Clozaril). The RN should instruct the family to report which symptom immediately?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Sore throat. Clozapine can lead to agranulocytosis, a condition characterized by a significant decrease in white blood cells. A sore throat can be an early sign of agranulocytosis, a potentially life-threatening adverse effect of clozapine. The family should report this symptom immediately to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because weight loss, constipation, and lightheadedness are not typically associated with the serious adverse effect of agranulocytosis related to clozapine therapy.

Similar Questions

A client diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) engages in repetitive hand washing that lasts for several hours. Which strategy should the nurse use to manage this behavior?
A client with alcohol use disorder is being treated in a rehabilitation facility. Which behavior indicates that the client is making progress in recovery?
A male client with known auditory hallucinations begins talking loudly and gesturing wildly while in the unit’s day room. What action should the nurse implement first?
An adolescent with a history of bipolar disorder is hospitalized during a manic episode. Which intervention is most appropriate for the nurse to include in the care plan?
The RN is leading a group on the inpatient psychiatric unit. Which approach should the RN use during the working phase of group development?

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