Nursing Elites

1. A client receiving IV heparin reports abdominal pain and tarry stools. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Prepare to administer protamine sulfate.
• B. Continue the heparin infusion and notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Monitor the client's vital signs and assess abdominal pain.
• D. Administer a PRN dose of morphine sulfate.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to prepare to administer protamine sulfate. Abdominal pain and tarry stools are indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious side effect of heparin therapy. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin and is used to reverse its effects in cases of bleeding. Continuing the heparin infusion (Choice B) is not appropriate when the client is experiencing signs of bleeding. Monitoring vital signs and assessing abdominal pain (Choice C) is important but not the priority when immediate action is required to address potential bleeding. Administering morphine sulfate (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation; addressing the underlying cause of bleeding takes precedence.

2. A client with hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. What teaching should the nurse provide about this medication?

• A. Instruct the client to avoid high-potassium foods.
• B. Monitor the client’s heart rate and report any bradycardia.
• C. Advise the client to rise slowly from a sitting or lying position.
• D. Instruct the client to avoid sudden position changes.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to rise slowly from a sitting or lying position. Beta-blockers can cause bradycardia and hypotension, so clients should be advised to rise slowly to prevent dizziness and falls. Monitoring the client's heart rate and blood pressure regularly is essential. Instructing the client to avoid high-potassium foods (Choice A) is not directly related to beta-blockers. While monitoring the client's heart rate (Choice B) is important, advising the client to rise slowly (Choice C) is more directly related to potential side effects of beta-blockers. Instructing the client to avoid sudden position changes (Choice D) is not as specific or essential as advising them to rise slowly to prevent adverse effects.

3. A client receiving heparin therapy experiences a drop in platelet count. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Continue to monitor the platelet count.
• B. Discontinue the heparin infusion.
• C. Administer platelet transfusion.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Notify the healthcare provider immediately. A drop in platelet count during heparin therapy may indicate heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), a serious condition that increases the risk of clot formation. Immediate discontinuation of heparin is necessary to prevent further complications. Administering platelet transfusion without addressing the underlying cause can be harmful. Continuing to monitor the platelet count without taking immediate action can lead to delayed intervention. Notifying the healthcare provider promptly allows for assessment and initiation of alternative anticoagulation therapy to manage the client's condition effectively.

4. The nurse is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection to a thin, elderly client. What is the most appropriate site for the injection?

• A. Dorsal aspect of the upper arm.
• B. Upper outer thigh.
• C. Lower abdomen.
• D. Lateral aspect of the upper arm.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is the upper outer thigh. In thin, elderly clients, the upper outer thigh is a recommended site for subcutaneous injections due to the presence of adequate subcutaneous tissue and muscle mass. The dorsal aspect of the upper arm may not provide enough subcutaneous tissue for proper absorption of the medication. The lower abdomen is not ideal for thin individuals as it may lead to injection into muscle rather than subcutaneous tissue. The lateral aspect of the upper arm is also not a commonly recommended site for subcutaneous injections.

5. A client is receiving IV antibiotic therapy for sepsis. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is improving?

• A. Urine output increases to 25 mL/hour
• B. Client reports feeling less fatigued
• C. Heart rate decreases from 120 to 110 beats per minute
• D. White blood cell count decreases from 15,000 to 9,000/mm3

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A decrease in white blood cell count indicates that the infection is responding to treatment, making this the most objective indicator of improvement in a client with sepsis. Choices A, B, and C are subjective indicators and may not always directly correlate with the resolution of the underlying infection. While an increase in urine output, a client reporting feeling less fatigued, and a decrease in heart rate are positive signs, they are not as specific or directly related to the resolution of the infection as a decrease in white blood cell count.

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