Nursing Elites

1. A client receiving IV heparin reports abdominal pain and tarry stools. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Prepare to administer protamine sulfate.
• B. Continue the heparin infusion and notify the healthcare provider.
• C. Monitor the client's vital signs and assess abdominal pain.
• D. Administer a PRN dose of morphine sulfate.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to prepare to administer protamine sulfate. Abdominal pain and tarry stools are indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious side effect of heparin therapy. Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin and is used to reverse its effects in cases of bleeding. Continuing the heparin infusion (Choice B) is not appropriate when the client is experiencing signs of bleeding. Monitoring vital signs and assessing abdominal pain (Choice C) is important but not the priority when immediate action is required to address potential bleeding. Administering morphine sulfate (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation; addressing the underlying cause of bleeding takes precedence.

2. A nurse from the maternity unit is floated to the critical care unit because of staff shortage on the evening shift. Which client would be appropriate to assign to this nurse?

• A. A client with a Dopamine drip IV with vital signs monitored every 5 minutes
• B. A client with a myocardial infarction that is free from pain and dysrhythmias
• C. A client with a tracheotomy of 24 hours in some respiratory distress
• D. A client with a pacemaker inserted this morning with intermittent capture

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, it is more appropriate to assign a stable client, such as the one with a myocardial infarction who is free from pain and dysrhythmias, to a nurse who lacks specialized critical care experience. This client's condition is relatively stable and does not require immediate critical interventions. Choices A, C, and D involve clients with more complex and critical conditions that would be better managed by a nurse with specialized critical care training. Choice A involves a client on a Dopamine drip with frequent vital sign monitoring, Choice C has a client with a tracheotomy in respiratory distress, and Choice D describes a client with a pacemaker experiencing intermittent capture, all of which require a higher level of critical care expertise.

3. A client with hypothyroidism is prescribed levothyroxine. What assessment finding suggests the medication dosage is too high?

• A. Increased sensitivity to cold.
• B. Increased heart rate and palpitations.
• C. Improved energy levels.
• D. Improved tolerance to heat.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased heart rate and palpitations. When a client with hypothyroidism is prescribed levothyroxine, these symptoms may indicate that the dosage is too high, causing the client to develop hyperthyroidism. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increased sensitivity to cold is a symptom of hypothyroidism, improved energy levels are an expected outcome of levothyroxine therapy for hypothyroidism, and improved tolerance to heat is not a common sign of levothyroxine overdose.

4. A client has viral pneumonia affecting 2/3 of the right lung. What would be the best position to teach the client to lie in every other hour during the first 12 hours after admission?

• A. Side-lying on the left with the head elevated 10 degrees
• B. Side-lying on the left with the head elevated 35 degrees
• C. Side-lying on the right with the head elevated 10 degrees
• D. Side-lying on the right with the head elevated 35 degrees

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is side-lying on the left with the head elevated 10 degrees. This position maximizes ventilation and promotes better perfusion to the unaffected lung. Placing the client in this position helps to optimize oxygenation and reduce pressure on the affected lung. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because lying on the left side with the head elevated is essential to facilitate better lung expansion and gas exchange in the unaffected lung, while lying on the right side could further compromise the affected lung by increasing pressure on it.

5. A client is receiving treatment for glaucoma. Which class of medications is commonly used to decrease intraocular pressure?

• A. Anticholinergics
• B. Beta blockers
• C. Alpha blockers
• D. Diuretics

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Diuretics are commonly used to decrease intraocular pressure in clients with glaucoma. They work by reducing the production of aqueous humor in the eye or by increasing its outflow. Anticholinergics (Choice A) are not typically used in the treatment of glaucoma and can even increase intraocular pressure. Beta blockers (Choice B) are also commonly used in glaucoma treatment as they reduce aqueous humor production. Alpha blockers (Choice C) are not the first-line treatment for glaucoma and are not as commonly used as diuretics or beta blockers.

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