Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving intravenous gentamicin (Garamycin). Which of the following findings should prompt the nurse to notify the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Nausea
• B. Hearing loss
• C. Headache
• D. Diarrhea

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Gentamicin (Garamycin) is an aminoglycoside antibiotic known to cause ototoxicity, which can manifest as hearing loss. Hearing loss is a serious adverse effect that should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent further complications or adjust the treatment regimen. Nausea, headache, and diarrhea are common side effects of gentamicin but are not as severe or urgent as hearing loss in this context.

2. Bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) is prescribed for a client with urinary retention. Which disorder would be a contraindication to the administration of this medication?

• A. Gastric atony
• B. Urinary strictures
• C. Neurogenic atony
• D. Gastroesophageal reflux

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Bethanechol chloride (Urecholine) should not be administered to clients with urinary strictures as it can contract the bladder and increase pressure within the urinary tract. In individuals with urinary strictures, this elevated pressure may lead to bladder rupture. Therefore, caution is advised when considering the use of Bethanechol chloride in clients with urinary strictures to prevent potential complications. Gastric atony, neurogenic atony, and gastroesophageal reflux are not contraindications for the administration of Bethanechol chloride for urinary retention.

3. A client has been started on long-term therapy with rifampin (Rifadin). A nurse teaches the client that the medication:

• A. Should always be taken with food or antacids
• B. Should be double-dosed if one dose is forgotten
• C. Causes orange discoloration of sweat, tears, urine, and feces
• D. May not be discontinued independently if symptoms are gone in 3 months

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rifampin causes orange-red discoloration of body secretions, including sweat, tears, urine, and feces. It can also permanently stain soft contact lenses. It is essential to take rifampin exactly as directed and not discontinue it without consulting the healthcare provider.

4. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of heparin therapy for a client with deep vein thrombosis?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Prothrombin time (PT)
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
• D. Hemoglobin and hematocrit

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the specific laboratory test used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy in patients with deep vein thrombosis. It measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is crucial in assessing the therapeutic range of heparin. Platelet count, prothrombin time (PT), and hemoglobin and hematocrit levels are important parameters in assessing coagulation and blood status but do not directly indicate the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

5. A client is to begin a 6-month course of therapy with isoniazid (INH). A nurse plans to teach the client to:

• A. Avoid drinking alcohol.
• B. Report yellow eyes or skin immediately.
• C. Avoid Swiss or aged cheeses.
• D. Avoid vitamin supplements during therapy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is on isoniazid (INH) therapy, they should be instructed to report any signs of hepatitis, such as yellowing of the eyes or skin, immediately. Alcohol consumption should be avoided during INH therapy due to the risk of hepatotoxicity. Foods high in tyramine, such as Swiss or aged cheeses, should also be avoided to prevent adverse reactions. Additionally, while on INH therapy, it is essential to avoid vitamin supplements containing pyridoxine (vitamin B6) to prevent potential interactions.

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