Nursing Elites

1. After a renal biopsy, which intervention should the nurse include in the post-procedure plan of care?

• A. Restricting fluid intake for the first 24 hours
• B. Periodically testing the urine for occult blood
• C. Avoiding the administration of opioid analgesics
• D. Having the client ambulate in the room and hall for short distances

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After a renal biopsy, it is essential to maintain bed rest and frequently assess the client's vital signs and the puncture site. The nurse should test the urine periodically for occult blood to detect any bleeding, which could be a complication of the procedure. Restricting fluid intake for the first 24 hours is not necessary after a renal biopsy and could potentially lead to dehydration. Avoiding the administration of opioid analgesics is not a standard intervention post-renal biopsy unless contraindicated for a specific reason. Having the client ambulate in the room and hall for short distances is generally not recommended immediately after a renal biopsy due to the need for bed rest to prevent complications.

2. A client receives a prescription for 1 liter of lactated Ringer's intravenously to be infused over 6 hours. How many mL/hr should the nurse program the infusion pump to deliver? (Enter numerical value only. If rounding is needed, round to the nearest whole number.)

• A. 167 mL/hr
• B. 200 mL/hr
• C. 83 mL/hr
• D. 111 mL/hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct infusion rate is 167 mL/hr. This is calculated by dividing the total volume (1000 mL) by the total time (6 hours), resulting in 166.67 mL/hr, which should be rounded to the nearest whole number as 167 mL/hr. This calculation ensures a steady infusion rate over the specified time frame. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the correct calculation based on the volume and time provided in the prescription.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is experiencing nausea, vomiting, visual changes, and anorexia. Which action by the nurse is best?

• A. Check the client’s digoxin (Lanoxin) level.
• B. Administer an anti-nausea medication.
• C. Ask if the client can eat crackers.
• D. Refer the client to a gastrointestinal specialist.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease experiencing symptoms like nausea, vomiting, visual changes, and anorexia, it is crucial for the nurse to suspect digoxin (Lanoxin) toxicity. These symptoms are indicative of digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the best action for the nurse to take is to check the client's digoxin level. Administering anti-nausea medication, asking about eating crackers, and referring to a gastrointestinal specialist may help with symptom management but do not address the underlying cause of the symptoms, which is digoxin toxicity in this case.

4. The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving oral potassium chloride supplements. The nurse notes that the patient has a heart rate of 120 beats per minute and has had a urine output of 200 mL in the past 12 hours. The patient reports abdominal cramping. Which action will the nurse take?

• A. Contact the provider to request an order for serum electrolytes.
• B. Encourage the patient to consume less fluids.
• C. Report symptoms of hyperkalemia to the provider.
• D. Request an order to increase the patient’s potassium dose.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Oliguria, tachycardia, and abdominal cramping are signs of hyperkalemia, so the nurse should request an order for serum electrolytes to assess the patient's potassium levels. Encouraging the patient to consume less fluids would not address the underlying issue of potential hyperkalemia. Reporting symptoms of hyperkalemia to the provider is not as proactive as directly requesting serum electrolytes. Increasing the patient's potassium dose would worsen hyperkalemia, which is already suspected based on the symptoms presented.

5. The healthcare professional is reviewing a patient’s chart prior to administering gentamicin (Garamycin) and notes that the last serum peak drug level was 9 mcg/mL and the last trough level was 2 mcg/mL. What action will the healthcare professional take?

• A. Administer the next dose as prescribed.
• B. Obtain repeat peak and trough levels before administering the next dose.
• C. Report potential drug toxicity to the patient’s healthcare provider.
• D. Notify the patient’s healthcare provider of decreased drug therapeutic level.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Gentamicin peak levels should ideally be between 5 to 8 mcg/mL, and trough levels should be within the range of 0.5 to 2 mcg/mL to ensure therapeutic efficacy while minimizing toxicity risk. In this case, the patient's peak level is above the recommended range, and the trough level is at the higher end, indicating potential drug toxicity. Therefore, the correct action for the healthcare professional is to report the possibility of drug toxicity to the patient’s healthcare provider. Administering the next dose as prescribed (Choice A) would exacerbate the toxicity risk. Obtaining repeat peak and trough levels (Choice B) may confirm the current levels but does not address the immediate concern of potential toxicity. Reporting a decreased drug therapeutic level (Choice D) is not the priority in this scenario, as the focus should be on addressing the potential toxicity issue.

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