Nursing Elites

1. During an assessment on a patient brought to the emergency department for treatment for dehydration, the nurse notes a respiratory rate of 26 breaths/minute, a heart rate of 110 beats/minute, a blood pressure of 86/50 mm Hg, and a temperature of 39.5° C. The patient becomes dizzy when transferred from the wheelchair to a bed. The nurse observes cool, clammy skin. Which diagnosis does the nurse suspect?

• A. Fluid volume deficit (FVD)
• B. Fluid volume excess (FVE)
• C. Mild extracellular fluid (ECF) deficit
• D. Renal failure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should suspect Fluid Volume Deficit (FVD) in this patient. Signs of FVD include elevated temperature, tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension, orthostatic hypotension, and cool, clammy skin, which align with the patient's assessment findings. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Fluid Volume Excess (FVE) typically presents with bounding pulses, elevated blood pressure, dyspnea, and crackles. Mild extracellular fluid (ECF) deficit usually manifests as thirst. Renal failure commonly results in Fluid Volume Excess (FVE) rather than Fluid Volume Deficit (FVD).

2. The nurse instructs the unlicensed nursing personnel (UAP) on how to provide oral hygiene for clients who cannot perform this task for themselves. Which of the following techniques should the nurse tell the UAP to incorporate into the client's daily care?

• A. Assess the oral cavity each time mouth care is given and record observations.
• B. Use a soft toothbrush to brush the client's teeth after each meal.
• C. Swab the client's tongue, gums, and lips with a soft foam applicator every 2 hours.
• D. Rinse the client's mouth with mouthwash several times a day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct technique to incorporate into the client's daily care for oral hygiene is to use a soft toothbrush to brush the client's teeth after each meal. This helps in maintaining oral hygiene for clients who cannot perform this task themselves. Choice A is incorrect because assessing the oral cavity each time mouth care is given is important but not the technique to incorporate into daily care. Choice C is incorrect as swabbing the tongue, gums, and lips every 2 hours may not be necessary for daily care. Choice D is incorrect as rinsing the client's mouth with mouthwash several times a day may not be suitable for all clients and is not a standard recommendation for daily oral care.

3. The nurse is caring for a patient who has recurrent urinary tract infections. The patient’s current infection is not responding to an antibiotic that has been used successfully several times in the past. The nurse understands that this is most likely due to

• A. acquired bacterial resistance.
• B. cross-resistance.
• C. inherent bacterial resistance.
• D. transferred resistance.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: acquired bacterial resistance. Acquired resistance happens when an organism has been exposed to the antibacterial drug, making it less effective over time. Cross-resistance (B) occurs when resistance to one drug leads to resistance to another. Inherent resistance (C) happens without prior exposure to the drug, meaning the bacteria are naturally resistant. Transferred resistance (D) involves the transfer of resistant genes from one organism to another, contributing to resistance development.

4. A client in a physician’s office has just made an appointment for an exercise stress test. The client should be instructed to:

• A. Wear sweatpants and a heavy sweatshirt
• B. Eat a small meal just before the procedure
• C. Wear comfortable rubber-soled shoes such as sneakers
• D. Avoid consuming caffeine for 30 minutes before the procedure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client should wear comfortable rubber-soled shoes, such as sneakers, for the exercise stress test. This choice ensures safety and stability during the procedure. Wearing sweatpants and a heavy sweatshirt (Choice A) would not be appropriate as the client needs to wear light, loose, comfortable clothing. Eating a small meal just before the procedure (Choice B) could lead to discomfort during the test. Avoiding caffeine for 30 minutes before the procedure (Choice D) is not a specific instruction related to the attire or preparation for the test.

5. A client is placed on fluid restrictions because of chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which assessment finding would alert the nurse that the client’s fluid balance is stable at this time?

• A. Decreased calcium levels
• B. Increased phosphorus levels
• C. No adventitious sounds in the lungs
• D. Increased edema in the legs

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The absence of adventitious sounds upon auscultation of the lungs is a key indicator that the client's fluid balance is stable. Adventitious sounds, such as crackles or wheezes, are typically heard in conditions of fluid overload, indicating that the body is retaining excess fluid. Choices A and B, decreased calcium levels and increased phosphorus levels, are common laboratory findings associated with chronic kidney disease (CKD) and are not directly related to fluid balance. Increased edema in the legs is a sign of fluid imbalance, suggesting fluid retention in the tissues, which would not indicate stable fluid balance in a client with CKD on fluid restrictions.

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