HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. Upon admission, a 77-year-old female client presents with confusion, loss of appetite, nausea, vomiting, and headache, with a pulse rate of 43 beats per minute. Which question should the nurse prioritize asking the client or her family?
- A. Does the client have her own teeth or dentures?
- B. Does the client take aspirin, and if so, what is the dosage?
- C. Does the client take nitroglycerin?
- D. Does the client take digitalis?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The client's symptoms suggest digitalis toxicity, a potentially life-threatening condition that requires immediate attention. Digitalis toxicity can present with symptoms such as anorexia, nausea, vomiting, headache, and bradycardia (low pulse rate). Given the client's presentation, it is crucial to assess for digitalis use as elderly individuals are more susceptible to this type of intoxication. Choices A, B, and C are important aspects to consider during the assessment, but in this scenario, the priority lies in identifying and addressing the potential digitalis toxicity due to the severity of symptoms and the need for prompt intervention.
2. The nurse explains to the client with Hodgkin's disease that a bone marrow biopsy will be taken after the aspiration. What should the nurse explain about the biopsy?
- A. The biopsy will confirm the diagnosis of Hodgkin's disease.
- B. The biopsy will show the extent of the disease in the bones.
- C. The biopsy will be done to check for infection in the bones.
- D. The biopsy will help determine the best treatment for the disease.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A bone marrow biopsy helps determine the best treatment plan for Hodgkin's disease by providing crucial information about the extent and nature of the disease. While confirming the diagnosis is important, the primary purpose of the biopsy in this case is to guide treatment decisions. The biopsy is not primarily for assessing the extent of the disease in the bones or checking for infections in the bones.
3. In assessing cancer risk, which woman is at greatest risk of developing breast cancer?
- A. A 35-year-old multipara who never breastfed.
- B. A 50-year-old whose mother had unilateral breast cancer.
- C. A 55-year-old whose mother-in-law had bilateral breast cancer.
- D. A 20-year-old whose menarche occurred at age 9.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because family history of breast cancer, specifically in the mother, is a significant risk factor for developing breast cancer. The age of 50 is also a risk factor for breast cancer. Choice A is less likely as breastfeeding can actually reduce the risk of breast cancer. Choice C is less relevant since the risk is higher with a direct family member. Choice D, although early menarche is a risk factor, the age of the individual is much lower compared to the other age-related risk factors.
4. A client with chronic renal failure is being treated with sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following?
- A. Hyponatremia.
- B. Hypokalemia.
- C. Hyperkalemia.
- D. Hypocalcemia.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hyperkalemia. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) is used to treat high potassium levels (hyperkalemia) by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the large intestine, which is then eliminated through the feces. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for changes in potassium levels to ensure the effectiveness of the treatment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) is not associated with causing hyponatremia, hypokalemia, or hypocalcemia.
5. The nurse is preparing to administer the first dose of hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) 50 mg to a patient who has a blood pressure of 160/95 mm Hg. The nurse notes that the patient had a urine output of 200 mL in the past 12 hours. The nurse will perform which action?
- A. Administer the medication as ordered.
- B. Encourage the patient to drink more fluids.
- C. Hold the medication and request an order for serum BUN and creatinine.
- D. Request an order for serum electrolytes and administer the medication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action is to hold the medication and request an order for serum BUN and creatinine. Thiazide diuretics, such as hydrochlorothiazide, are contraindicated in renal failure. In this case, the patient has oliguria, which is a reduced urine output, indicating potential renal insufficiency. Before administering the diuretic, it is crucial to evaluate the patient's renal function through serum BUN and creatinine levels. Encouraging the patient to drink more fluids (Choice B) may not address the underlying issue of renal function. Administering the medication as ordered (Choice A) without assessing renal function can be harmful. Requesting serum electrolytes and administering the medication (Choice D) overlooks the need for a specific evaluation of renal function in this scenario.
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