a client with acute kidney injury aki weighs 50kg and has a potassium level of 67meql 67mmoll is admitted to the hospital which prescribed medication
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1. A client with acute kidney injury (AKI) weighing 50kg and having a potassium level of 6.7mEq/L (6.7mmol/L) is admitted to the hospital. Which prescribed medication should the nurse administer first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with acute kidney injury (AKI) and hyperkalemia, the priority intervention is to lower the potassium level swiftly. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate is a medication used to treat hyperkalemia by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the intestines, reducing the overall potassium levels. Calcium acetate, epoetin alfa, and sevelamer are not indicated for the immediate reduction of potassium levels in hyperkalemia. Calcium acetate is used to control phosphate levels, epoetin alfa is a medication to treat anemia by stimulating red blood cell production, and sevelamer is a phosphate binder used in chronic kidney disease to reduce phosphate levels.

2. A patient has been taking spironolactone (Aldactone) to treat heart failure. The nurse will monitor for

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic commonly used in heart failure management. One of the major side effects of spironolactone is hyperkalemia, which is an elevated level of potassium in the blood. Monitoring for hyperkalemia is crucial as it can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypermagnesemia (choice B) is not typically associated with spironolactone use. Hypocalcemia (choice C) and hypoglycemia (choice D) are also not directly linked to the use of spironolactone in heart failure treatment.

3. When monitoring a client who is receiving tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA), the nurse should have resuscitation equipment available because reperfusion of the cardiac tissue can result in which of the following?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cardiac arrhythmias. Reperfusion of cardiac tissue following t-PA administration can lead to cardiac arrhythmias, necessitating resuscitation equipment. Hypertension (choice B) is a common side effect of t-PA but is not directly related to reperfusion. Seizures (choice C) and hypothermia (choice D) are not typically associated with reperfusion from t-PA administration.

4. The patient is receiving sulfadiazine. The healthcare provider knows that this patient’s daily fluid intake should be at least which amount?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sulfadiazine may lead to crystalluria, a condition where crystals form in the urine. Adequate fluid intake helps prevent this adverse effect by ensuring urine is dilute enough to prevent crystal formation. The recommended daily fluid intake for a patient receiving sulfadiazine is at least 2000 mL/day. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not provide a sufficient amount of fluid intake to prevent crystalluria in patients on sulfadiazine.

5. When planning care for a client newly diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma, the nurse identifies a priority nursing problem of 'visual sensory/perceptual alterations.' This problem is based on which etiology?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Decreased peripheral vision.' Open-angle glaucoma leads to a gradual loss of peripheral vision due to damage to the optic nerve. This loss of peripheral vision is a hallmark sign of the condition and a primary reason for the visual sensory/perceptual alterations experienced by the client. Blurred distance vision (choice A) may occur but is not the priority nursing problem. Limited eye movement (choice B) and photosensitivity (choice D) are not typically associated with the sensory/perceptual alterations seen in open-angle glaucoma.

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