Nursing Elites

1. A 25-year-old male is brought to the emergency room with a piece of metal in his eye. Which action by the nurse is correct?

• A. Use a magnet to remove the object.
• B. Rinse the eye thoroughly with saline.
• C. Cover both eyes with paper cups.
• D. Administer eye drops immediately.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Covering both eyes with paper cups is the correct action as it helps prevent consensual movement of the affected eye. Attempting to remove the object with a magnet might cause trauma, making choice A incorrect. While rinsing the eye with saline may be necessary, it should be ordered by a doctor and is not the initial action for the nurse, making choice B incorrect. Administering eye drops immediately, as in choice D, is not appropriate in this scenario and does not address the primary concern of preventing further damage by limiting eye movement.

2. A client with cancer is to undergo an intravenous pyelogram. The nurse should:

• A. Ensure adequate fluid intake 24 hours before the procedure
• B. Ask the client to void immediately before the study
• C. Administer medication that affects the central nervous system as prescribed
• D. Position the client appropriately for the procedure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to ask the client to void immediately before the study. For an intravenous pyelogram, the client may have orders for laxatives or enemas, so ensuring the client voids before the test is important to prevent obscuring visualization of the kidney, ureters, and bladder. Choice A is incorrect because there is no need to force fluids before the procedure. Choice C is incorrect as medications affecting the central nervous system should not be held unless specified by the healthcare provider. Choice D is incorrect as covering the reproductive organs with an x-ray shield is not necessary for an intravenous pyelogram.

3. A client tells the nurse that his wife's nagging really gets on his nerves. He asks the nurse to talk with her about her nagging during their family session tomorrow afternoon. Which of the following responses is the most therapeutic for the client?

• A. "Tell me more specifically about her complaints."?
• B. "Can you think of reasons why she might nag you so much?"?
• C. "I'll help you think about how to bring this up yourself tomorrow afternoon."?
• D. "Why do you want me to initiate this in tomorrow's session rather than you?"?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most therapeutic response is to empower the client to address the issue himself. By offering assistance in thinking about how to bring up the topic during the family session, the nurse is promoting the client's autonomy and communication skills. This response encourages the client to take an active role in resolving the situation. Choices A and B focus on the wife's behavior, which is not the immediate concern during this interaction. Choice D challenges the client's request and shifts the responsibility back to the client, potentially hindering progress and discouraging open communication.

4. The nurse is making initial rounds on a client with a C5 fracture and crutch field tongs. Which equipment should be kept at the bedside?

• A. A pair of forceps
• B. A torque wrench
• C. A pair of wire cutters
• D. A screwdriver

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A torque wrench is essential equipment to keep at the bedside for a client with a C5 fracture and crutch field tongs. This tool is used to tighten and loosen the screws of the crutch field tongs, allowing the nurse to adjust the pressure on the screws for proper support and alignment. A pair of forceps (choice A), wire cutters (choice C), and a screwdriver (choice D) are not required for managing crutch field tongs and, therefore, are incorrect choices in this scenario.

5. A client is given an opiate drug for pain relief following general anesthesia. The client becomes extremely somnolent with respiratory depression. The physician is likely to order the administration of:

• A. naloxone (Narcan)
• B. labetalol (Normodyne)
• C. neostigmine (Prostigmin)
• D. thiothixene (Navane)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is naloxone (Narcan). Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression and somnolence. In this scenario, the client's extreme somnolence and respiratory depression suggest an opioid overdose, making naloxone the appropriate choice to counteract these effects. Labetalol (Normodyne) is a nonselective beta-blocker used to treat hypertension, not opioid overdose. Neostigmine (Prostigmin) is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to reverse neuromuscular blockade, not opioid-induced respiratory depression. Thiothixene (Navane) is an antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia and is not indicated for opioid overdose.

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