Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following tasks are appropriate for an LPN to perform?

• A. Adjusting the cervical traction device of a 68-year-old client as instructed by the charge nurse.
• B. performing operation on a woman in labour
• C. Assessing a 36-year-old man newly admitted for chest pain.
• D. Obtaining an occult blood sample from a 16-year-old client with ulcerative colitis.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Tasks appropriate for an LPN to perform include teaching, obtaining samples, and documenting. LPNs can educate clients on care practices, such as teaching a new mother how to care for her baby. Obtaining samples, like an occult blood sample, falls within the scope of an LPN's responsibilities. Assessments, especially initial assessments, should be conducted by a registered nurse or physician, making option C incorrect. Adjusting devices like a cervical traction device should be done based on direct orders from prescribing providers, not charge nurses, making option A inappropriate for an LPN's role.

2. Which of the following might be an appropriate nursing diagnosis for an epileptic client?

• A. Dysreflexia
• B. Risk for Injury
• C. Urinary Retention
• D. Unbalanced Nutrition

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct nursing diagnosis for an epileptic client would be 'Risk for Injury' as the client is prone to injuries during seizure activity, such as head trauma from falls. Epilepsy does not typically cause dysreflexia. While urinary retention may occur during or after a seizure, it is not a common nursing diagnosis related to epilepsy. 'Unbalanced Nutrition' is not a priority nursing diagnosis for an epileptic client compared to the immediate risk of injury during seizures.

3. The nurse has completed client teaching about introducing solid foods to an infant. To evaluate teaching, the nurse asks the mother to identify an appropriate first solid food. Which of the following is an appropriate response?

• A. pureed canned squash
• B. pureed apples
• C. yogurt
• D. infant rice cereal

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is infant rice cereal. Single-grain infant cereals are recommended as the first solid food because they are easily digestible and have added iron content. Choice C, yogurt, is incorrect because yogurt is a milk product and should be delayed until the child is 12 months old due to the risk of milk allergy. Choices A and B are incorrect because fruits and vegetables are typically introduced after cereals to help the infant get accustomed to solid foods gradually.

4. What sign might the nurse observe in a client with a high ammonia level?

• A. coma
• B. edema
• C. hypoxia
• D. polyuria

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Coma is a sign that a nurse might observe in a client with a high ammonia level. Elevated ammonia levels can lead to hepatic encephalopathy, a condition characterized by impaired brain function, which can progress to coma. Edema (choice B) is swelling caused by excess fluid trapped in body tissues, not typically associated with high ammonia levels. Hypoxia (choice C) is a condition of inadequate oxygen supply to tissues and is not directly related to high ammonia levels. Polyuria (choice D) refers to excessive urination and is not a typical sign of high ammonia levels.

5. For which of the following conditions might blood be drawn to assess uric acid levels?

• A. asthma
• B. gout
• C. diverticulitis
• D. meningitis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Uric acid levels are commonly assessed in patients with gout. Gout is a type of arthritis caused by the buildup of uric acid crystals in the joints, leading to inflammation and pain. Monitoring uric acid levels helps in diagnosing and managing gout. Asthma, diverticulitis, and meningitis are not conditions where blood tests for uric acid levels are typically necessary. Asthma is a respiratory condition, diverticulitis involves inflammation of the digestive tract, and meningitis is an infection of the meninges in the brain and spinal cord.

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