jane love a 35 year old gravida iii para ii at 23 weeks gestation is seen in the emergency department with painless bright red vaginal bleeding jane

NCLEX-PN

Quizlet NCLEX PN 2023

1. Jane Love, a 35-year-old gravida III para II at 23 weeks gestation, is seen in the Emergency Department with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. Jane reports that she has been feeling tired and has noticed ankle swelling in the evening. Laboratory tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 11.5 g/dL. After evaluating the situation, the nurse determines that Jane is at risk for placenta previa, based on which of the following data?

A. anemia
B. edema
C. painless vaginal bleeding
D. fatigue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placenta previa is a disorder where the placenta implants in the lower uterine segment, causing painless bleeding in the third trimester of pregnancy. The bleeding results from tearing of the placental villi from the uterine wall as the lower uterine segment contracts and dilates. It can be slight or profuse and can include bright red, painless bleeding. While anemia (choice A) may be a consequence of chronic bleeding from placenta previa, it is not a direct indicator. Edema (choice B) and fatigue (choice D) are nonspecific symptoms that can occur in pregnancy but are not specific to placenta previa.

2. Clomiphene is prescribed for a female client to treat infertility. The nurse is providing information to the client and her spouse about the medication and provides the couple with which information?

A. If the oral tablets are not successful, the medication will be administered intravenously.
B. The couple should engage in coitus at least every other day during treatment.
C. The physician should be notified immediately if breast engorgement occurs.
D. Multiple births occur in a small percentage of clomiphene-facilitated pregnancies.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is that multiple births (usually twins) occur in a small percentage (8% - 10%) of clomiphene-facilitated pregnancies. The couple should be informed about this potential outcome. Clomiphene is available in 50-mg tablets for oral use; there is no intravenous form of the medication. Breast engorgement is a common side effect of clomiphene that typically resolves after discontinuation of the medication. Ovulation usually happens 5 to 10 days after the last dose of clomiphene, and the couple is advised to engage in coitus at least every other day during this time. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not provide accurate information regarding clomiphene treatment for infertility.

3. The schizophrenic client who is admitted to the hospital for possible bowel obstruction has an NG tube and complains of pain. What should the nurse do at this time?

A. Decrease the stimuli and observe frequently
B. Administer the PRN sedative
C. Call the physician immediately
D. Administer the PRN pain medication

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should administer the PRN (as needed) pain medication to address the schizophrenic client's complaint of pain. It is essential to provide relief and comfort to the client experiencing pain. Option A, decreasing stimuli and observing frequently, may not address the underlying cause of pain and delay relief. Option B, administering a sedative, does not target the pain but may mask symptoms. Option C, calling the physician immediately, while important in some situations, is not the most immediate action needed to alleviate the client's pain. Therefore, the most appropriate action at this time is to administer the PRN pain medication to help alleviate the client's discomfort.

4. A patient has been admitted to the hospital with an L4-5 HNP diagnosis. After 24 hours, the patient is able to ambulate with assistance and has reduced muscle spasms. Which of the following medications was the most beneficial in changing the patient's mobility status?

A. Mivacron
B. Atropine
C. Bethanechol
D. Flexeril

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Flexeril. Flexeril is a muscle relaxant commonly used to treat acute muscle pain and spasms. In this scenario, the patient experiencing reduced muscle spasms and improved mobility after taking Flexeril indicates its effectiveness. Choice A, Mivacron, is a neuromuscular blocking agent that is not typically used for muscle spasms or pain relief. Choice B, Atropine, is a medication used to treat certain types of nerve agent and pesticide poisonings, not muscle spasms. Choice C, Bethanechol, is a medication that stimulates bladder contractions and is not indicated for muscle spasms or mobility improvement.

5. What is the primary sign of displacement following a total hip replacement?

A. pain on movement and weight bearing
B. hemorrhage
C. affected leg appearing 1-2 inches longer
D. edema in the area of the incision

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is pain on movement and weight bearing. This pain is the primary sign of prosthesis displacement after a total hip replacement, indicating pressure on nerves or muscles due to dislocation. Hemorrhage is not typically associated with prosthesis displacement. While the affected leg may appear longer, this is not the primary sign of displacement; it might actually be shorter due to muscle spasm. Edema in the incision area is not a primary indicator of prosthesis displacement.