Nursing Elites

1. Jane Love, a 35-year-old gravida III para II at 23 weeks gestation, is seen in the Emergency Department with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. Jane reports that she has been feeling tired and has noticed ankle swelling in the evening. Laboratory tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 11.5 g/dL. After evaluating the situation, the nurse determines that Jane is at risk for placenta previa, based on which of the following data?

• A. anemia
• B. edema
• C. painless vaginal bleeding
• D. fatigue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Placenta previa is a disorder where the placenta implants in the lower uterine segment, causing painless bleeding in the third trimester of pregnancy. The bleeding results from tearing of the placental villi from the uterine wall as the lower uterine segment contracts and dilates. It can be slight or profuse and can include bright red, painless bleeding. While anemia (choice A) may be a consequence of chronic bleeding from placenta previa, it is not a direct indicator. Edema (choice B) and fatigue (choice D) are nonspecific symptoms that can occur in pregnancy but are not specific to placenta previa.

2. A patient has a history of cardiac arrhythmia. A nurse has been ordered to give 2 units of blood to this patient. The nurse should take which of the following actions?

• A. Administer pain medication to the patient.
• B. Inform the patient's family about the procedure in person.
• C. Decrease the temperature of the blood to be given.
• D. Increase the temperature of the blood to be given.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In patients with a history of cardiac arrhythmia, warming the blood before transfusion can help prevent additional arrhythmias. Cold blood can lead to arrhythmias and should be avoided. Administering pain medication (Choice A) is not directly related to the safe administration of blood. Informing the patient's family in person (Choice B) is important but not the immediate action required for safe transfusion. Decreasing the temperature of the blood to be given (Choice C) would increase the risk of cardiac arrhythmia, contrary to the goal of ensuring patient safety.

3. A client, age 28, was recently diagnosed with Hodgkin's disease. After staging, therapy is planned to include combination radiation therapy and systemic chemotherapy with MOPP"?nitrogen mustard, vincristine (Onconvin), prednisone, and procarbazine. In planning care for this client, the nurse should anticipate which of the following side effects to contribute to a sense of altered body image?

• A. Cushingoid appearance
• B. Alopecia
• C. Temporary or permanent sterility
• D. Pathologic fractures

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Alopecia. Chemotherapy drugs like vincristine can cause alopecia, which is hair loss. This side effect can significantly impact a patient's body image. While Cushingoid appearance (A) can be a side effect of long-term steroid use, temporary or permanent sterility (C) may affect a patient's future fertility but not necessarily alter body image. Pathologic fractures (D) are not common side effects of Hodgkin's disease or its treatment and do not directly contribute to a sense of altered body image in the same way as alopecia does.

4. The nurse manager is having a problem on the unit with one staff person having repetitive tardiness and leaving the unit with orders not initiated. Which action by the manager would be best?

• A. Call the staff nurse in and place them on a work improvement plan after a 3-day suspension
• B. Have the other staff gather additional information on the tardy staff member
• C. Call the staff nurse in for an interview to investigate the problem and possible solutions
• D. Assign a mentor to assist the staff member in arriving on time

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse manager would be to call the staff nurse in for an interview to discuss the issues of repetitive tardiness and incomplete tasks. This approach allows the staff member to explain the situation, and together with the manager, develop a plan to address the problems. Choice A is incorrect as it immediately involves suspension without investigation or support. Choice B is not the best course of action as it does not involve direct communication with the staff member in question. Choice D, assigning a mentor to help the staff member, could be beneficial but does not directly address the immediate issues of tardiness and incomplete tasks.

5. After applying oxygen using bi-nasal prongs to a client who is having chest pain, the nurse should implement which intervention?

• A. Have the client take slow deep breaths in through their mouth and out through their nose.
• B. Post signs indicating that oxygen is in use on the client's door and in their room
• C. Apply Vaseline petroleum to both nares and 2 by 2 gauze around the oxygen tubing at the client's ears
• D. Encourage the client to hyperextend the neck, take a few deep breaths and cough.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After applying oxygen using bi-nasal prongs to a client with chest pain, it is essential for the nurse to post signs indicating that oxygen is in use on the client's door and in their room. This safety precaution alerts healthcare providers and visitors that the client is receiving oxygen therapy, reducing the risk of accidents or misunderstandings. Choice A is incorrect because instructing the client to take slow deep breaths is not the appropriate intervention after applying oxygen. Choice C suggests applying Vaseline and gauze, which is unnecessary and not a standard practice. Choice D advising the client to hyperextend the neck, take deep breaths, and cough is not indicated after applying oxygen therapy and could potentially be harmful.

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