Nursing Elites

1. How often should the intravenous tubing on total parenteral nutrition solutions be changed?

• A. every 24 hours
• B. every 36 hours
• C. every 48 hours
• D. every 72 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to change the intravenous tubing on total parenteral nutrition solutions every 24 hours. This frequency is necessary due to the high risk of bacterial growth associated with TPN solutions. Changing the tubing every 24 hours helps prevent contamination and bloodstream infections. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because waiting longer intervals increases the risk of introducing harmful bacteria into the patient's system, leading to potentially severe complications.

2. The nurse notes that a client in later adulthood has tremors of the hands. Based on this finding, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Ask the healthcare provider about referring the client to a neurological specialist.
• B. Obtain a prescription for a muscle relaxant.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• D. Document the findings.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a nurse observes senile tremors, such as intentional tremor of the hands in a client in later adulthood, it is important to document the findings. Senile tremors are benign and a normal age-related occurrence. Referring the client to a neurological specialist (Choice A) is unnecessary as senile tremors do not require specialized neurological intervention. Prescribing a muscle relaxant (Choice B) is not indicated since senile tremors are benign and not typically treated with muscle relaxants. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (Choice C) is unnecessary as senile tremors do not require urgent intervention. Therefore, the most appropriate action is to document the findings (Choice D) for the client's medical record and to establish a baseline for future assessments.

3. A healthcare professional reviewing a client's health care record notes documentation that the client has Heberden nodes of the distal interphalangeal joints. Which disorder does the healthcare professional determine that the client has?

• A. Scoliosis
• B. Osteoarthritis
• C. Rotator cuff lesions
• D. Carpal tunnel syndrome

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Osteoarthritis. Osteoarthritis is characterized by hard, nontender nodules of 2 to 3 mm or larger. These osteophytes (bony overgrowths) of the distal interphalangeal joints are called Heberden nodes. In this disorder, when these nodes occur on the proximal interphalangeal joints, they are called Bouchard nodes. Heberden nodes are not associated with scoliosis, rotator cuff lesions, or carpal tunnel syndrome. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect.

4. When a 16-year-old girl visits the women's health clinic to obtain information about birth control because she is sexually active and wants to avoid pregnancy, what should the nurse do first when interviewing the client?

• A. Assess the client's knowledge of available birth control methods.
• B. Inform the client that birth control methods can be discussed without the client's boyfriend present.
• C. Tell the client that for her age and lifestyle, birth control pills would be one of the methods of contraception.
• D. Give the client written material about various birth control methods and ask her to read them and to call if she has any questions.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client seeks information about birth control, it is essential for the nurse to first assess the client's existing knowledge on the subject. This enables the nurse to provide tailored information that complements what the client already knows, facilitating better understanding and decision-making. Providing written material is a helpful educational tool but should not be the first intervention. Offering specific advice on birth control methods based on age and lifestyle limits the client's autonomy and decision-making process. Mentioning the client's boyfriend as a requirement for discussing birth control is inappropriate and nontherapeutic, as the client should be able to seek information independently.

5. When a woman is receiving postpartum epidural morphine, the nurse should plan to observe for which of the following side effects to occur within the first 3 hours?

• A. nausea and vomiting
• B. itching
• C. urinary retention
• D. somnolence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A side effect of postpartum epidural morphine is the onset of itching within 3 hours of injection and lasting up to 10 hours. Nausea and vomiting might occur 4-7 hours after injection. While urinary retention is a side effect of postpartum epidural morphine, it is not typically assessed within the first 3 hours. Somnolence is a rare side effect and not commonly observed within the first 3 hours. Therefore, itching is the most likely side effect to be observed within the initial 3 hours after administering postpartum epidural morphine.

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