Nursing Elites

1. A client, age 28, was recently diagnosed with Hodgkin's disease. After staging, therapy is planned to include combination radiation therapy and systemic chemotherapy with MOPP"?nitrogen mustard, vincristine (Onconvin), prednisone, and procarbazine. In planning care for this client, the nurse should anticipate which of the following side effects to contribute to a sense of altered body image?

• A. Cushingoid appearance
• B. Alopecia
• C. Temporary or permanent sterility
• D. Pathologic fractures

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Alopecia. Chemotherapy drugs like vincristine can cause alopecia, which is hair loss. This side effect can significantly impact a patient's body image. While Cushingoid appearance (A) can be a side effect of long-term steroid use, temporary or permanent sterility (C) may affect a patient's future fertility but not necessarily alter body image. Pathologic fractures (D) are not common side effects of Hodgkin's disease or its treatment and do not directly contribute to a sense of altered body image in the same way as alopecia does.

2. A client comes to the clinic for assessment of his physical status and guidelines for starting a weight-reduction diet. The client's weight is 216 pounds and his height is 66 inches. The nurse identifies the BMI (body mass index) as:

• A. within normal limits, so a weight-reduction diet is unnecessary
• B. lower than normal, so education about nutrient-dense foods is needed
• C. indicating obesity because the BMI is 35
• D. indicating overweight status because the BMI is 27

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Obesity is defined by a BMI of 30 or more with no co-morbid conditions. It is calculated by utilizing a chart or nomogram that plots height and weight. This client's BMI is 35, indicating obesity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because the client's BMI is above 30, which falls under the obesity category. Therefore, a weight-reduction diet and increased physical activity are necessary to address the client's weight status and promote overall health.

3. A client has a 10% dextrose in water IV solution running. He is scheduled to receive his antiepileptic drug, phenytoin (Dilantin), at this time. The nurse knows that the phenytoin:

• A. is given after the D10W is finished.
• B. should be given at the time it is due in the medication port closest to the client.
• C. can be piggybacked into the D10W solution now.
• D. is incompatible with dextrose solutions.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Phenytoin is incompatible with dextrose solutions as they will precipitate when mixed together. Therefore, it should not be piggybacked into the D10W solution or given through the same port. Instead, normal saline should be used to flush before and after administering phenytoin to prevent any interaction with the dextrose solution. Delaying the administration of an antiepileptic drug like phenytoin to maintain therapeutic blood levels is not recommended, so it should not be given after the D10W is finished or based on the medication port closest to the client. Choice A is incorrect because administering phenytoin after the D10W is finished is not the correct approach due to the incompatibility with dextrose solutions. Choice B is incorrect as the timing of phenytoin administration should not be based on the medication port closest to the client but on compatibility considerations. Choice C is incorrect as piggybacking phenytoin into the D10W solution is not advisable due to the incompatibility issue.

4. The nurse is caring for a 44-year-old client diagnosed with hypoparathyroidism. Which electrolyte imbalance is closely associated with hypoparathyroidism?

• A. Hypocalcemia.
• B. Hyponatremia.
• C. Hyperkalemia.
• D. Hypophosphatemia.

Correct answer: A.

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypocalcemia. In hypoparathyroidism, where the parathyroid glands are not producing sufficient parathyroid hormone, calcium levels become inadequate. This leads to hypocalcemia, characterized by symptoms such as muscle spasms, anxiety, seizures, hypotension, and congestive heart failure. Hyponatremia and hyperkalemia are not typically associated with hypoparathyroidism. While hyperphosphatemia can be seen in hypoparathyroidism due to decreasing calcium levels, the question specifically asks about the primary electrolyte imbalance closely related to hypoparathyroidism, which is hypocalcemia.

5. A client has been taking a drug (Drug A) that is highly metabolized by the cytochrome P-450 system. He has been on this medication for 6 months. At this time, he is started on a second medication (Drug B) that is an inducer of the cytochrome P-450 system. You should monitor this client for:

• A. increased therapeutic effects of Drug A.
• B. increased adverse effects of Drug B.
• C. decreased therapeutic effects of Drug A.
• D. decreased therapeutic effects of Drug B.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client is taking a drug (Drug A) metabolized by the cytochrome P-450 system and is then started on another drug (Drug B) that induces this system, the metabolism of Drug A is increased. This results in decreased therapeutic effects of Drug A as it is broken down more rapidly. Monitoring is required to address potential reduced efficacy. The therapeutic effect of Drug A is diminished, not enhanced. Inducing the cytochrome P-450 system does not directly increase the adverse effects of Drug B. Although Drug B is an inducer, its therapeutic effects are not decreased as it is not metabolized faster.

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