which of these signs suggests that a male client with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone siadh secretion is experiencing complications
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HESI RN

HESI RN Nursing Leadership and Management Exam 5

1. Which of these signs suggests that a male client with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion is experiencing complications?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Neck vein distention is a sign of fluid overload, a complication of SIADH due to water retention. Tetanic contractions (Choice A) are not typically associated with SIADH. Weight loss (Choice C) is not a common complication of SIADH, as patients often experience fluid retention and weight gain. Polyuria (Choice D) is also not a typical sign of SIADH, as the condition is characterized by water retention and decreased urine output.

2. A client with DM is taking regular and NPH insulin every morning. The nurse should provide which instruction to the client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the client is to take the regular insulin first, then the NPH insulin. Regular insulin should be administered before NPH insulin to prevent contamination and maintain the potency of each insulin type. Choice B is incorrect because NPH insulin should not be taken before regular insulin. Mixing the insulins in a separate syringe, as suggested in choice C, is not recommended as it may alter the effectiveness of the insulins. Choice D is also incorrect as taking the regular insulin first and immediately following it with NPH insulin is not the recommended administration sequence.

3. Which of the following symptoms would be most concerning in a client with diabetes insipidus?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with diabetes insipidus, excessive thirst (polydipsia) and excessive urination (polyuria) are expected symptoms due to the inability to concentrate urine, leading to dilute urine production. Nocturia, waking up at night to urinate, is also common. However, hypertension is not a typical symptom of diabetes insipidus. The correct answer is D because hypertension may indicate a complication such as dehydration or electrolyte imbalances, which would require further assessment in a client with diabetes insipidus.

4. A client with type 1 DM is admitted to the hospital with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The nurse should prioritize which action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering intravenous fluids is the priority in treating DKA for several reasons. DKA is characterized by severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalances due to hyperglycemia. IV fluids help to correct dehydration, restore electrolyte balance, and decrease blood glucose levels. Administering oral glucose (Choice B) would be contraindicated in DKA as the primary issue is high blood glucose levels. Administering a fever-reducing medication (Choice C) is not the priority in managing DKA. Administering oxygen therapy (Choice D) may be necessary in some cases, but correcting dehydration and electrolyte imbalances take precedence in the management of DKA.

5. A client with Cushing's syndrome is scheduled for surgery to remove an adrenal tumor. The nurse should monitor for which of the following complications postoperatively?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Postoperative hypotension is a common complication after adrenal tumor removal in a client with Cushing's syndrome. This occurs due to the sudden withdrawal of cortisol, which leads to a relative adrenal insufficiency state. Hyperglycemia (Choice A) is more common preoperatively due to excessive cortisol levels. Hypokalemia (Choice C) and Hyponatremia (Choice D) are also associated with Cushing's syndrome but are less likely to be immediate postoperative complications compared to hypotension.

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