which of these signs suggests that a male client with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone siadh secretion is experiencing complications
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HESI RN

HESI RN Nursing Leadership and Management Exam 5

1. Which of these signs suggests that a male client with the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion is experiencing complications?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Neck vein distention is a sign of fluid overload, a complication of SIADH due to water retention. Tetanic contractions (Choice A) are not typically associated with SIADH. Weight loss (Choice C) is not a common complication of SIADH, as patients often experience fluid retention and weight gain. Polyuria (Choice D) is also not a typical sign of SIADH, as the condition is characterized by water retention and decreased urine output.

2. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is experiencing hypoglycemia. What should the nurse instruct the client to do?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus experiences hypoglycemia, the nurse should instruct them to consume 15 grams of simple carbohydrates. This is the recommended initial treatment for hypoglycemia as it helps quickly raise blood sugar levels to alleviate symptoms and prevent complications. Administering insulin immediately (Choice A) would further lower blood sugar levels, worsening the hypoglycemia. Drinking plenty of water (Choice C) and avoiding eating until symptoms resolve (Choice D) are not appropriate actions for treating hypoglycemia as they do not address the immediate need to raise blood sugar levels.

3. A client is taking NPH insulin daily every morning. The nurse instructs the client that the most likely time for a hypoglycemic reaction to occur is:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 6-14 hours after administration. NPH insulin has an onset of action within 1-2 hours, a peak action at 6-14 hours, and a duration of action of 16-24 hours. The peak action period, which is when the risk of hypoglycemia is highest, falls between 6-14 hours after administration. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the typical action profile of NPH insulin.

4. A client with hyperaldosteronism is at risk for which of the following electrolyte imbalances?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In hyperaldosteronism, there is an excessive secretion of aldosterone, a hormone that promotes potassium excretion in the kidneys. This leads to low potassium levels in the blood, known as hypokalemia. Therefore, the correct answer is hypokalemia (Choice C). Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is the opposite condition, where there is high potassium levels in the blood and is not typically associated with hyperaldosteronism. Hyponatremia (Choice B) is a low sodium level, which is not directly related to aldosterone function. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is an elevated calcium level and is not typically a direct result of hyperaldosteronism.

5. A client with Addison's disease is receiving corticosteroid therapy. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following potential side effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with Addison's disease is receiving corticosteroid therapy, the nurse should monitor for hypertension as a potential side effect. Corticosteroids can lead to hypertension by causing fluid retention and increased blood volume. Hypoglycemia (Choice A) is not a common side effect of corticosteroid therapy; instead, hyperglycemia is more likely. Weight loss (Choice C) is not a typical side effect of corticosteroid therapy; in fact, weight gain is more common due to fluid retention and increased appetite. Hyperkalemia (Choice D) is a potential side effect of Addison's disease itself due to adrenal insufficiency, but it is not directly caused by corticosteroid therapy.

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