which of these nursing assessments would be the highest priority for a client at risk for aspiration pneumonia
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Nutrition Proctored Exam Quizlet

1. Which of these nursing assessments would be the highest priority for a client at risk for aspiration pneumonia?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Checking the client's gag reflex before eating or drinking is the highest priority for a client at risk for aspiration pneumonia. Aspiration pneumonia can occur when food, liquids, or saliva are inhaled into the lungs, leading to inflammation or infection. Checking the gag reflex helps prevent the aspiration of substances into the lungs. Assessing the client's level of consciousness (Choice A) is important but not as immediately critical as checking the gag reflex. Monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice B) is essential for respiratory assessment but does not directly prevent aspiration. Monitoring intake and output (Choice D) is important for overall client management but does not specifically address the risk of aspiration pneumonia.

2. In a client with chronic kidney disease having a serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L, which assessment is the most critical for the nurse to perform?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Assessing cardiac status is crucial in hyperkalemia as high potassium levels can result in life-threatening arrhythmias. Monitoring the heart rhythm and ECG findings is essential to prevent cardiac complications. Neurological status, respiratory status, and gastrointestinal status are important assessments too, but in the context of hyperkalemia, cardiac status takes precedence due to the immediate risk of cardiac arrhythmias.

3. When assessing a client for signs and symptoms of a fluid volume deficit, the nurse would be most concerned with which finding?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: A low blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg is a significant finding indicating fluid volume deficit. In fluid volume deficit, the body tries to compensate by increasing heart rate (choice B) to maintain cardiac output. Respiratory rate (choice C) may increase as a compensatory mechanism, but it is not the primary concern in fluid volume deficit. Urine output (choice D) may decrease in response to fluid volume deficit, but it is a late sign and not the most concerning finding.

4. The nurse is assessing a client 2 hours postoperatively after a femoral popliteal bypass. The upper leg dressing becomes saturated with blood. The nurse's first action should be to

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario where the upper leg dressing becomes saturated with blood post-femoral popliteal bypass, the nurse's first action should be to apply pressure at the bleeding site. Applying pressure is essential to control hemorrhage and prevent further blood loss. Choice A is incorrect as wrapping the leg with elastic bandages would not address the immediate issue of controlling the bleeding. Choice C is incorrect because reinforcing the dressing and elevating the leg should come after controlling the bleeding. Choice D is incorrect as removing the dressings and re-dressing the incision should only be done after the bleeding is under control to prevent excessive blood loss.

5. The nurse is caring for a client undergoing the placement of a central venous catheter line. Which of the following would require the nurse's immediate attention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dyspnea indicates a potential complication such as pneumothorax or incorrect catheter placement, requiring immediate attention. Pallor may indicate anemia but is not as urgent as dyspnea in this context. Increased temperature could be a sign of infection but is not as critical as respiratory distress. Involuntary muscle spasms are not directly related to central venous catheter placement and are of lower priority compared to respiratory issues.

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