Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following would be the priority nursing diagnosis for a client with an ectopic pregnancy?

• A. Risk for infection
• B. Pain
• C. Knowledge Deficit
• D. Anticipatory Grieving

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Anticipatory grieving is the priority nursing diagnosis for a client with an ectopic pregnancy. An ectopic pregnancy is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate medical intervention, often resulting in emotional distress and potential loss. Anticipatory grieving addresses the emotional needs of the client and their family in anticipation of a possible loss. While pain management and infection prevention are important aspects of care, addressing the emotional well-being and coping mechanisms should take precedence in this situation. Knowledge deficit may also be relevant, but emotional support is crucial in this critical scenario.

2. What is Dinoprostone commonly used for?

• A. Cervical priming.
• B. Pain management during labor.
• C. Management of pre-term labor.
• D. Management of post-partum hemorrhage.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dinoprostone is commonly used for the management of pre-term labor. While it can be used for cervical priming, its primary indication is for pre-term labor. Choice A is partially correct but not the most common use of Dinoprostone. Choices B and D are incorrect as Dinoprostone is not primarily used for pain management during labor or for the management of post-partum hemorrhage.

3. The products of conception are retained in which of the following?

• A. Complete abortions
• B. Incomplete abortions
• C. Threatened abortion
• D. Mixed abortion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In incomplete abortions, the products of conception are retained. In a complete abortion, all the products of conception are expelled from the uterus. Threatened abortion refers to a situation where there is vaginal bleeding but the cervix remains closed, and it does not necessarily involve retention of products of conception. Mixed abortion is not a recognized medical term related to retained products of conception.

4. Polymenorrhoea is defined as:

• A. Menstruation that occurs at an interval less than 35 days
• B. Menstruation that occurs at an interval greater than 35 days
• C. Menstruation that occurs at an interval less than 21 days
• D. Menstruation that occurs at an interval greater than 21 days

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Polymenorrhoea is defined as menstruation that occurs at intervals shorter than 21 days. Choice A is incorrect because it describes menstruation at intervals less than 35 days. Choice B is incorrect as it describes menstruation at intervals greater than 35 days. Choice D is incorrect as it describes menstruation at intervals greater than 21 days.

5. What is one role of the hormone estrogen?

• A. Stimulates the development of the milk-producing tissue.
• B. Stimulates the production of lactoferrin.
• C. Stimulates the development of the nipple and duct system in the breast.
• D. Stimulates the secretion of relaxin.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Estrogen stimulates the development of the milk-producing tissue in the breast. This hormone is essential in preparing the breast for milk production. Choice B is incorrect because lactoferrin production is not a primary role of estrogen. Choice C is incorrect as estrogen primarily influences the development of the breast tissue rather than specifically the nipple and duct system. Choice D is incorrect because relaxin secretion is not a function typically associated with estrogen.

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