HESI RN
Reproductive Health Exam
1. Which of the following would be the priority nursing diagnosis for a client with an ectopic pregnancy?
- A. Risk for infection
- B. Pain
- C. Knowledge Deficit
- D. Anticipatory Grieving
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Anticipatory grieving is the priority nursing diagnosis for a client with an ectopic pregnancy. An ectopic pregnancy is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate medical intervention, often resulting in emotional distress and potential loss. Anticipatory grieving addresses the emotional needs of the client and their family in anticipation of a possible loss. While pain management and infection prevention are important aspects of care, addressing the emotional well-being and coping mechanisms should take precedence in this situation. Knowledge deficit may also be relevant, but emotional support is crucial in this critical scenario.
2. What are the external organs of the female collectively known as?
- A. Vulva
- B. Frenulum
- C. Mons veneris
- D. Vestibule
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vulva. The external organs of the female reproductive system, including the labia majora, labia minora, clitoris, vaginal opening, and Bartholin's glands, are collectively known as the vulva. Choice B, Frenulum, is incorrect as it refers to a small band of tissue. Choice C, Mons veneris, specifically refers to the rounded mass of fatty tissue located over the pubic bone, not all external female reproductive organs. Choice D, Vestibule, is incorrect as it is the space enclosed by the labia minora that includes the vaginal and urethral openings, not all external female reproductive organs.
3. Which one of the following is not a stage in the ovarian cycle of the menstrual cycle?
- A. Recruitment of Graafian follicle
- B. Selection of dominant follicle
- C. Luteal phase
- D. Formation of corpus luteum
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The recruitment of the Graafian follicle is indeed a stage in the ovarian cycle. During the ovarian cycle, the primary follicles are recruited to develop further, leading to the formation of the Graafian follicle. The selection of the dominant follicle, luteal phase, and formation of the corpus luteum are other essential stages in the ovarian cycle. Therefore, option A is not correct as it is a crucial phase in the process of ovulation and fertilization.
4. In which of the following types of spontaneous abortions would the nurse assess dark brown vaginal discharge and a negative pregnancy test?
- A. Threatened
- B. Imminent
- C. Missed
- D. Incomplete
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Dark brown vaginal discharge and a negative pregnancy test are characteristic of a missed abortion. In a missed abortion, the fetus has died, but the products of conception are retained in the uterus. This can lead to symptoms like dark brown vaginal discharge as the body tries to expel the nonviable pregnancy. A threatened abortion is characterized by vaginal bleeding without dilation of the cervix, and the pregnancy remains viable. Imminent abortion involves cervical dilation and effacement with no passage of tissue. In an incomplete abortion, only part of the products of conception are expelled, leading to persistent bleeding and cramping.
5. At 34-40 weeks of pregnancy, the breast changes include:
- A. Nipples become prominent and mobile.
- B. Colostrum can be expressed.
- C. Breasts become tender.
- D. Montgomery's tubercles are prominent.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During the 34-40 weeks of pregnancy, Montgomery's tubercles become prominent. These are sebaceous glands on the areola, not the nipples. Choice A is incorrect as it describes the changes in nipples, not Montgomery's tubercles. Choice B is incorrect as colostrum production usually starts around the 16th week. Choice C is incorrect as breast tenderness is more common in early pregnancy due to hormonal changes.
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