Nursing Elites

1. What is a priority intervention for a patient experiencing a thyroid storm?

• A. Administering antipyretics.
• B. Cooling the patient.
• C. Administering beta-blockers.
• D. Administering antithyroid medications.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a thyroid storm, the priority intervention is to administer antithyroid medications to reduce thyroid hormone levels quickly. These medications, such as propylthiouracil or methimazole, help inhibit the production of thyroid hormones. Administering antipyretics (choice A) may help reduce fever, but it does not address the underlying cause of the thyroid storm. Cooling the patient (choice B) may provide symptomatic relief but does not address the thyroid hormone dysregulation. Administering beta-blockers (choice C) can help manage symptoms like tachycardia and hypertension, but it does not target the root cause of the thyroid storm.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic renal failure who is receiving peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following findings should be reported immediately to the physician?

• A. Clear dialysate outflow.
• B. Increased blood pressure.
• C. Cloudy dialysate outflow.
• D. Decreased urine output.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Cloudy dialysate outflow should be reported immediately to the physician. It is indicative of peritonitis, a severe infection of the peritoneal cavity and a serious complication of peritoneal dialysis. Prompt medical attention is crucial to prevent further complications or systemic infection. Clear dialysate outflow (Choice A) is a normal finding in peritoneal dialysis. Increased blood pressure (Choice B) and decreased urine output (Choice D) are common in clients with chronic renal failure and may not require immediate reporting unless they are significantly abnormal or accompanied by other concerning symptoms.

3. When providing care for an unconscious client who has seizures, which nursing intervention is most essential?

• A. Ensure oral suction is available.
• B. Maintain the client in a semi-Fowler's position.
• C. Provide frequent mouth care.
• D. Keep the room at a comfortable temperature.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During seizures in an unconscious client, ensuring oral suction is available is crucial to managing secretions and preventing aspiration. This intervention helps maintain a clear airway and reduce the risk of complications. Maintaining the client in a semi-Fowler's position (Choice B) may be important for airway management but is not as critical as having oral suction ready. Providing frequent mouth care (Choice C) and keeping the room at a comfortable temperature (Choice D) are important aspects of overall care but are not as urgently needed as ensuring oral suction for managing secretions during seizures.

4. A client has a long history of hypertension. Which category of medication would the nurse expect to be ordered to avoid chronic kidney disease (CKD)?

• A. Antibiotic
• B. Histamine blocker
• C. Bronchodilator
• D. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. ACE inhibitors inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor. By blocking this conversion, ACE inhibitors promote vasodilation and improve perfusion to the kidneys. Additionally, ACE inhibitors block the breakdown of bradykinin and prostaglandin, further contributing to vasodilation. They also lead to increased renin and decreased aldosterone levels. These effects help in reducing blood pressure and protecting the kidneys in clients with hypertension. Antibiotics are used to fight infections, histamine blockers reduce inflammation, and bronchodilators widen the bronchi, none of which address the underlying processes involved in slowing the progression of chronic kidney disease (CKD) in hypertensive clients.

5. A client is tested for HIV with the use of an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA), and the test result is positive. The nurse should tell the client that:

• A. HIV infection has been confirmed
• B. The client probably has an opportunistic infection
• C. The test will need to be confirmed with the use of a Western blot
• D. A positive test is a normal result and does not mean that the client is infected with HIV

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When an ELISA test for HIV is positive, it is essential to confirm the result with a Western blot. The Western blot is the confirmatory test for HIV. Choice A is incorrect because a positive ELISA test does not confirm HIV infection. Choice B is incorrect as it assumes a different diagnosis. Choice D is incorrect because a positive ELISA test does indicate potential HIV infection and requires confirmation.

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